UPSC PRELIMS MOCKS - UPSC SURE QUESTIONS 2023

 1.Which of the following is not the member of the G20?

a) Indonesia b) Singapore c) Mexico d) Turkey

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Singapore is not the member of the G20.

Q2. Which of the following organization releases the ‘Gender Inequality Index’?

a) World Economic Forum b) UN Human Rights Council c) UN Women d) United Nations Development Programme

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The Gender Inequality Index (GII) is an index for measurement of gender disparity that was introduced in the 2010 Human Development Report 20th anniversary edition by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

Q3. Consider the following statements about ethanol:

1. Burning of ethanol does not emit any pollutants. 2. The ethanol blending programme is being focused upon as it has high land use efficiency. 3. The electric energy generated from solar energy in one hectare of land is equivalent to ethanol generated from 187 hectares of maize.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are not correct?

a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Burning of ethanol does not reduce the emissions of nitrous oxide which is a key pollutant.

The land use in ethanol production is highly inefficient.

The land can be used far more efficiently by generating renewable power for EV batteries.

For example, the annual travel distance of EVs recharged from solar energy generating one hectare is equivalent to 187 hectares of maize-derived ethanol.

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding Quantum Key Distribution seen in the news sometimes.

1. It is a new method devised by IT companies to distribute Software Keys using Quantum technology. 2. It is an application of Quantum Cryptography to secure communication channels. 3. It is a method of distributing Cryptocurrency keys to various users.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only b) 1and 2 only c) 2 only d) 2, and 3 only

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Quantum Key Distribution is an application of Quantum Cryptography which is used to encrypt communication signals thus securing them from hacking.

Q5. Which of the following is/are the aims of Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme (RDSS):

1. To reduce the Aggregate Technical & Commercial losses (AT&C) losses to pan-India levels of 12-15% by 2024-25. 2. To reduce the ACS-ARR (average cost of supply-average revenue realized) gap to zero by 2024-25.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The scheme aims to meet the following objectives:

Reduction of AT&C losses to pan-India levels of 12-15% by 2024-25.

Reduction of ACS-ARR gap to zero by 2024-25.

Improvement in the quality, reliability, and affordability of power supply to consumers through a financially sustainable and operationally efficient distribution sector.

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding North East Council:

1. It was founded in 1947 as an advisory body having security of the region as primary concern. 2. Both the Chief Minister and the Governor of the respective states are included as members of the council. 3. The act was amended in 2002 changing its role from an advisory to become an infrastructure planning body for the region.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

Explanation: North Eastern Council

The institution was founded in 1971 as an advisory body.

Initially, its members were Governors of the Northeast States, thereby remaining as the ears and eyes of the Center.

Its original pledge too made security the primary concern.

In 2002, the act that brought NEC to life was amended. From an advisory role, it became an infrastructure planning body for the region.

Sikkim was also brought into its fold. Significantly, its executive structure expanded to include Chief Ministers of these States, linking it to the aspirations of local electorates.

7.Question: Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

1.A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States

2.A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State

3.A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory

4.A dispute between two or more States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

The Supreme Court, as a federal court, hears cases involving the Indian Federation's various components. To put it another way, any disagreement:

(a) between the Centre and one or more states;

(b) between the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more other states on the other; or

(c) between two or more states, are heard by the Supreme Court.

Hence, statements 1 and 4 are correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

8.Question: Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

(a) The President of India

(b) The Prime Minister of India

(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat

(d) The Supreme Court of India

Answer: (d)

The Supreme Court of India is the custodian of the Constitution of India.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

9.Question: Consider the following statements

1.The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.

2.As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Under Article 165 of the Indian Constitution, the Governor appoints the Advocate General of a State. So statement 1 is incorrect.

Original Appellate and Writ jurisdiction is exercised by the High Courts, not advisory jurisdiction. So statement 2 is incorrect.

10.Question: Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?

1.Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly

2.Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State

3.Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

The state executive is dismissed, and the state legislature and local bodies are either suspended or dissolved while the president's rule is in effect. As a result, dissolution is not a 'necessary' outcome.

Question 11

Which of the following is/are eligible for the Golden Peacock Environment Management Award (GPEMA)?

1. All sectors of industry and commerce

2. Organisations in the Voluntary Sector

3. Government and Semi-Government Departments

4. Educational and Research establishments

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution

Option (d) is correct: The Golden Peacock Environment Management Award (GPEMA) is the coveted and prestigious recognition that

your organization could strive to win for environment management. The World Environment Foundation (WEF) takes pride to have instituted the Annual Award in 1998 in furtherance of its aims and objectives. The Awards shall be presented at the annual 'World Congress on Environment Management' to organisations adjudged to have attained significant achievements in the field of Environment Management.

The Golden Peacock Awards Secretariat (GPAS) invites applications from the manufacturing as well as service organisations in India, including those given below, for the Golden Peacock Environment Management Award.

• All sectors of industry and commerce - both Public and Private undertakings

• Organisations in the Voluntary Sector

• Government and Semi-Government Departments / Non-Governmental Organisation (NGOs)

• Educational, Service and Research establishments, including monitoring laboratories

Question 12

With reference to the James Webb Space Telescope, consider the following statements:

1. It is an orbiting infrared observatory.

2. It is an international collaboration between European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Statement 1 is correct: The James Webb Space Telescope (sometimes called JWST or Webb) is an orbiting infrared observatory that will complement and extend the discoveries of the Hubble Space Telescope, with longer wavelength coverage and greatly improved sensitivity.

The James Webb Space Telescope (sometimes called JWST or Webb) will be a large infrared telescope with an approximately 6.5-meter primary mirror. The telescope will be launched on an Ariane 5 rocket from French Guiana in 2021. It will study every phase in the history of the Universe, ranging from the first luminous glows after the Big Bang to the formation of solar systems capable of supporting life on planets like Earth to the evolution of our Solar System. It was formerly known as the ‘Next Generation Space Telescope’ (NGST); it was renamed in Sept. 2002 after a former NASA administrator, James Webb.

Statement 2 is not correct: The James Webb Space Telescope is an international collaboration between the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA), the European Space Agency (ESA), and the Canadian Space Agency (CSA).

Several innovative technologies have been developed for this telescope. These include a primary mirror made of 18 separate segments that unfold and adjust to shape after launch. The mirrors are made of ultra-lightweight beryllium. Webb’s biggest feature is a tennis court-sized five-layer sunshield that attenuates heat from the Sun more than a million times. The telescope’s four instruments - cameras and spectrometers - have detectors that can record extremely faint signals.

Question 13

Consider the following statements with reference to the Black Hole:

1. It is a region in space where the pulling force of gravity is so weak that light easily escapes.

2. Some black holes are a result of dying stars.

3. Black holes wander around the Universe.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution

Statement 1 is not correct: A black hole is a region in space where the pulling force of gravity is so strong that light is not able to escape. Because no light can escape, black holes are invisible. However, space telescopes with special instruments can help find black holes. They can observe the behaviour of material and stars that are very close to black holes.

Statement 2 is correct: The strong gravity occurs in black holes because matter has been pressed into a tiny space. This compression can take place at the end of a star's life. Some black holes are a result of dying stars. A black hole's gravity can sometimes be strong enough to pull off the outer gases of the star and grow a disk around itself called the accretion disk.

Statement 3 is not correct: Black holes do not wander around the Universe, randomly swallowing worlds. They follow the laws of gravity just like other objects in space. The orbit of a black hole would have to be very close to the solar system to affect Earth, which is not likely.

Question 14

The Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in the news, is situated in:

a) Tamil Nadu

b) West Bengal

c) Odisha

d) Kerala

Solution

Option (c) is correct: The Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in Odisha. It is spread in a vast area of 672 sq Kms. It is Odisha’s 2nd largest Mangrove ecosystems in India. Proximity to the Bay of Bengal makes the soil of the area enriched with salts, the vegetation and the species of the sanctuary is composed of those which are mainly found in the tropical and subtropical intertidal regions. It is the breeding place for saltwater crocodiles, which are the prime attractions of the sanctuary. The Gahirmatha Beach, which forms the boundary of the sanctuary in the east, is the largest colony of the Olive Ridley Sea Turtles.

Question 15

With reference to the Doppler Weather Radar (DWR), consider the following statements:

1. It provides detailed information on the storm's internal wind flow and structure.

2. It can detect weather phenomenon up to 5000 km.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Statement 1 is correct: The Doppler Weather Radar (DWR) provides advanced information,

enhancing the lead-time so essential for saving lives and property in the event of natural disaster associated with severe weather. Though the conventional radars can track and predict cyclones,

the DWR provides detailed information on a storm’s internal wind flow and structure. The severity of the weather systems can thus be quantitatively estimated more accurately than ever before, and more precise warnings can be generated. The polarimetric capability of the Radar will significantly improve the accuracy of rainfall estimation leading to accurate and timely flash flood warnings.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Doppler Weather Radar can detect Weather phenomenon up to 500 km. This system shall open up tremendous research opportunities in the areas of monsoon dynamics, Cloud Physics, the impact of orography in the precipitation process, precipitation characterization, thunderstorm and hailstorm genesis and evolution, etc.

Question 16

Types Of Taxes

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Direct tax?

1. It is a type of tax where the incidence and impact of taxation do not fall on the same entity.

2. Direct taxes in India are overseen by the Central Board of Direct Taxes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Statement 1 is not correct: Direct tax is a type of tax where the incidence and impact of taxation fall on the same entity. In the case of direct tax, the burden cannot be shifted by the taxpayer to someone else. These are largely taxes on income or wealth. Income tax, corporation tax, property tax, inheritance tax and gift tax are examples of direct tax.

Statement 2 is correct: The Direct taxes in India are overseen by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). It was formed as a result of the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1924.

Question17

Consider the following statements with reference to the International Court of Justice (ICJ):

1. It is composed of 15 judges elected to nine-year terms of office.

2. It has jurisdiction to deal with applications from individuals and non-governmental organizations.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Statement 1 is correct: The International Court of Justice, also known as the World Court, is the main judicial organ of the United Nations. It was established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in April 1946. The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands). The Court decides disputes between countries based on the voluntary participation of the States concerned. If a State agrees to participate in a proceeding, it is obligated to comply with the Court’s decision. Judgments delivered by the Court (or by one of its

Chambers) in disputes between States are binding upon the parties concerned. The International Court of Justice is composed of 15 judges elected to nine-year terms of office by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. Judges are eligible for re-election. If a judge dies or resigns during his or her term of office, a special election is held as soon as possible to choose a judge to fill the unexpired part of the term.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Court has no jurisdiction to deal with applications from individuals, non-governmental organizations, corporations or any other private entity. It cannot provide them with legal advice or help them in their dealings with national authorities. However, a State may take up the case of one of its nationals and invoke against another State the wrongs which its national claims to have suffered at the hands of the latter; the dispute then becomes one between States.

Question 18

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Toycathon 2021?

1. It is organised by the Ministry of Finance.

2. Its aim is to promote India as a global toy manufacturing hub.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Under the ‘AatmaNirbhar Bharat Abhiyan’ initiated by our Hon’ble Prime Minister, Shri. Narendra Modi, Toycathon 2021, is conceived to challenge India’s innovative minds to conceptualize novel Toys and Games based on Bharatiya civilization, history, culture, mythology and ethos.

Statements 1 is not correct: The Toycathon 2021 is an inter-ministerial initiative organized by the Ministry of Education’s Innovation Cell with support from the All-India Council for Technical Education, Ministry of Women and Child Development, Ministry of Commerce and

Industry, Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME), Ministry of Textiles and Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.

Statement 2 is correct: The Aims of the Toycathon 2021 are to conceptualize innovative toys based on the Indian value system, which will inculcate positive behaviour and good value among the children and to promote India as a global toy manufacturing hub (Atmanirbhar Abhiyan).

Question 19

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the recently released guidelines for Other Service Providers (OSPs) by the Department of Telecommunication?

1. It has removed the distinction between domestic and international OSPs.

2. The Electronic Private Automatic Branch Exchange (EPABX) of the OSP can be located anywhere in the world.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

The Department of Telecommunication liberalised the guidelines for Other Service Providers (OSPs), enabling business process

management (BPM) firms’ employees to work from home and provide voice-based services in India and abroad.

The main features of the liberalised guidelines announced are:

• The distinction between Domestic and International OSPs has been removed. A Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) centre with common Telecom resources will now be able to serve customers located worldwide, including in India. (Statement 1 is correct)

• With the removal of the distinction between Domestic and International OSP centres, the interconnectivity between all types of OSP centres is now permitted.

• EPABX (Electronic Private Automatic Branch Exchange) of the OSP can be located anywhere in the world. OSPs, apart from utilising EPABX services of the Telecom Service Providers, can also locate their EPABX at third Party Data Centres in India. (Statement 2 is correct)

• Remote Agents of OSP can now connect directly with the Centralised EPABX/ EPABX of the OSP/ EPABX of the customer using any technology, including Broadband over wireline/ wireless.

• No restriction for data interconnectivity between any OSP centres of the same company or group company or any unrelated company.

• It may be recalled that DoT has already exempted Data-Based Services from the OSP regulations. In addition, the regulations exempted OSPs from the requirement of any registration. Also, no Bank Guarantees were to be furnished. Work from Home and Work from Anywhere was also permitted.

• Penalties for violations were removed altogether, reaffirming the trust the Government has in the business.

Further liberalization of Guidelines will provide a big fillip for the growth of the OSP industry in India. This will create immense opportunities, income and employment in India.

Question 20

Which of the following countries have the Coral Reefs in South Asia?

1. Indonesia

2. India

3. Maldives

4. Sri Lanka

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution

Option (d) is correct: Coral Reefs are unique and the most diverse marine ecosystems on Earth. They are believed to have existed for about 200 million years. It is estimated that it took corals about 50 million years to reach their present level of diversity. They play a crucial role in supporting flora and fauna in the marine ecosystem. They are also described as ‘underwater tropical rainforest, fairyland underwater, biologist’s paradise, a magnificent repository of resources, genetic garden, submerged meadows and a treasure house of wealth’.

The Corals are composed of hundreds of thousands of individual animals known as polyps. Every polyp has a stomach that opens at only one end. This opening, which is essentially the mouth, is surrounded by tentacles. These tentacles are used for defence and capturing small animals for food. They act as barriers against waves and thus prevent coastal erosion.

Indonesia has the largest coral reef area in the world. India, Maldives, Sri Lanka and Chagos have the maximum coral reefs in South Asia. India has four coral reef areas: the Gulf of Mannar, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep Islands and the Gulf of Kutch.

Question 21

The 'Mukhyamantri COVID-19 Pariwar Aarthik Sahayata Yojana' was recently notified by which of the following States/Union Territories?

a) Punjab

b) Telangana

c) Delhi

d) Goa

Solution

Option (c) is correct: Recently, the Delhi Government's Social Welfare Department notified the 'Mukhyamantri COVID-19 Pariwar Aarthik Sahayata Yojana'.

Under the scheme, Rs 50,000 ex-gratia will be given to every family that has lost a member due to COVID-19. There are also many families where the earning member died due to COVID-19. Such families will be provided with a monthly pension of Rs 2,500 besides the ex-gratia of Rs 50,000.

For the scheme, the deceased and dependent both should be from Delhi. Death should be certified as COVID-19 death or death within one month of testing Covid positive and verified by the Health Department as Covid death.

Question 22

Which of the following countries is/are a member of the G20?

1. Brazil

2. Pakistan

3. China

4. India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution

Option (d) is correct: The G20 (The Group of Twenty) is an important international forum for global economic cooperation. It brings together the world's major economies. Its members account for more than 80 per cent of world Gross Domestic Product (GDP), 75 per cent of global trade and 60 per cent of the population of the planet. The forum has met every year since 1999 and since 2008 has included a yearly Leaders' Summit, with the participation of the respective Heads of State and Government. The G20 does not have a permanent secretariat: its agenda and activities are established by the rotating Presidencies in cooperation with the membership.

The members of the G20 are Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea (South Korea), Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States, and the European Union.

Pakistan is not a member of the G20.

Question 23

With reference to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), consider the following statements:

1. It was created by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

2. It provides regular assessments of the scientific basis of climate change, its impacts and future risks.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Statement 1 is not correct: The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) was created in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). The IPCC is an organization of governments that are members of the United Nations or WMO. The IPCC currently has 195 members.

Statement 2 is correct: The IPCC provides regular assessments of the scientific basis of climate change, its impacts and future risks, and options for adaptation and mitigation. Thousands of people from all over the world contribute to the work of the IPCC.

Question 24

The International Olympic Day is observed every year on:

a) 21 June

b) 25 July

c) 23 June

d) 26 May

Solution

Option (c) is correct: Every year, on 23 June, International Olympic Day is celebrated across the world. The first Olympic Day was celebrated on 23 June 1948. The day was initially observed to promote the idea of the Olympics and to celebrate the establishment of the International Olympic Committee (IOC).

Additional Information:

The International Olympic Committee was formed on 23 June 1894 in Sorbonne, Paris. The day is important as it aims to attract people, regardless of their age, to the Olympics. Its three pillars are move, learn and discover, which is aimed at engaging people to perform physical exercises.

Question 25

With reference to the Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) Programme, consider the following statements:

1. It is a joint initiative of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the World Bank.

2. It aims to strengthen developing countries' auditing capacity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Statements 1 is not correct: The Tax Inspectors Without Borders (TIWB) Programme is jointly launched by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD). The partnership was launched at the Third Financing for Development conference in Addis Ababa on 13 July 2015.

Statement 2 is correct: It aims to strengthen developing countries' auditing capacity and multinationals' compliance worldwide. It also aims to strengthen tax administrations of developing countries by transferring technical know-how and skills to their tax auditors and through the sharing of general audit practices and dissemination of knowledge products with them.

Q26. Which of the following is/are defined as ‘public authority’ under Right to Information Act?

1. Self-government established under any law 2. Any entities owned, controlled, or substantially financed by the government 3. Non-government organizations which are substantially financed directly or indirectly by funds provided by the government.

Choose the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

‘Public Authorities’ include bodies of self-government established under the Constitution, or under any law or government notification. For instance, these include Ministries, public sector undertakings, and regulators.

It also includes any entities owned, controlled, or substantially financed and non-government organizations substantially financed directly or indirectly by funds provided by the government.

Q27. Consider the following statements regarding Climate Risks Assessment:

1. Assess Adaptive Capacity 2. Identify Opportunities 3. Assign Risk Rating 4. Identify Climate Risks 5. Setup Tool and Scope

Choose the correct logical flow from the given options below:

a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1 c) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5 d) 5, 4, 1, 3, 2

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Q28. Consider the following statements:

1. Goa is the only state in India that has a uniform civil code that has been descended from the Government of India Act, 1935. 2. State government cannot make laws regarding subjects like Marriage, divorce, adoption, and succession as they are in the Union list under the seventh schedule of the constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Goa is the only state in India that has a uniform civil code regardless of religion, gender and caste.

It inherited the Portuguese Civil Code, of 1867 which is still applicable in the state even after it joined the Indian Union in 1961. The Goa civil code is largely based on the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867.

Concurrent List Entry 5: Marriage and divorce; infants and minors; adoption; wills, intestacy, and succession; joint family and partition; all matters in respect of which parties in judicial proceedings were immediately before the commencement of this Constitution subject to their personal law.

Q29. Consider the following statements regarding the Power Sector in India:

1. Non fossil fuel power generation contributes 60% of installed Power capacity in India. 2. Solar Power contributes 80% of renewable energy generation.

Choose the correct option :

a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Non fossil fuel includes Renewable Energy and Nuclear Energy sources and it contributes to the remaining (40%) installed capacity.

As of January 2022, India's installed renewable energy capacity stood at 152.36 GW, representing 38.56% of the overall installed power capacity.

50.30 GW from Solar energy.

40.1 GW from wind power.

10.17 GW from biomass.

46.51 GW from hydropower.

Q30. PRAAPTI Portal has been launched by:

a) Ministry of Power b) Ministry of Mines c) Ministry of Railways d) Ministry of Commerce

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

The web portal PRAAPTI was launched by The Union Ministry of Power.

The web portal aims to bring transparency to power purchase transactions between Generators and Discoms.

The Portal will capture invoicing and payment data for various long-term Power Purchasing Agreements (PPAs) from power generation companies.

This will help stakeholders in getting month-wise and legacy data on outstanding amounts of Discoms against power purchase.

The PRAAPTI app will also allow users to know the details related to payments made by Discoms to power generators and when they were made.

It will also enable consumers to evaluate the financial performance of their Discoms in terms of payments being made to generators.

It will also help DISCOMs and GENCOs to reconcile their outstanding payments.

Q31. With regard to the right to vote, consider the following statements:

1. Right to Vote under Article 326 of Indian Constitution is subject to disqualification either under the constitution or under any other appropriate legislative statute. 2. Right to vote has a constitutional status only to the extent that it leads to right to have a free and fair election. 3. Right to vote is part of the basic structure of the Constitution of India.

Which of the following statement/s is/are true?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A)

Article 326 in The Constitution Of India 1949

326. Elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be

on the basis of adult suffrage The elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assembly of every State shall be on the basis of adult suffrage; but is to say, every person who is a citizen of India and who is not less than twenty one years of age on such date as may be fixed in that behalf by or under any law made by the appropriate legislature and is not otherwise disqualified under this constitution or any law made by the appropriate Legislature on the ground of non residence, unsoundness of mind, crime or corrupt or illegal practice, shall be entitled to be registered as a voter at any such election

Question 32:

Foreign Direct Investment

Which of the following is/are included in the list of prohibited sectors for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India?

1. Chit Funds

2. Manufacturing of Cigars

3. Nidhi Company

4. Telecom Sector

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution

Option (a) is correct: Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is when a company takes controlling ownership in a business entity in another country. With FDI, foreign companies are directly involved with day-to-day operations in the other country. This means they are not just bringing money with them, but also knowledge, skills and technology. FDI under sectors is permitted either through the Automatic route or Government route.

• Under the Automatic Route, the non-resident or Indian company does not require any approval from the Government of India.

• Whereas under the Government route, approval from the Government of India is required before investment. Proposals for foreign investment under the Government route are considered by the respective Administrative Ministry/Department.

There are a few industries where FDI is strictly prohibited under any route.

• Lottery Business including Government/ Private lottery, online lotteries etc.

• Chit Funds

• Trading in Transferable Development Rights (TDR)

• Manufacturing of Cigars, cheroots, cigarillos, and cigarettes (tobacco or tobacco substitutes)

• Gambling and betting, including casinos

• Nidhi Company

• Real Estate Business or Construction of Farmhouses. Real estate business shall not include the development of town shops, construction of residential/ commercial premises, roads or bridges and Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) registered and regulated under the SEBI (REITs) Regulations, 2014.

• Sectors are not open to private sector investments – atomic energy, railway operations (other than permitted activities mentioned under the consolidated FDI Policy).

• Foreign technology collaboration in any form, including licensing for franchise, trademark, brand name, management contract, is also prohibited for Lottery Business and Gambling and Betting activities.

The FDI is allowed in Telecom Sector.

Question 33

With reference to Delimitation in India, consider the following statements:

1. It is the process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country or a province having a legislative body.

2. This exercise is carried out by a Delimitation Commission, whose orders cannot be questioned before any court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Statement 1 is correct: Delimitation is the process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country or a province having a legislative body to represent changes in population over time. The objective is to provide equal representation for equal population segments and a fair division of geographical areas so that no Political Party has an advantage.

Statement 2 is correct: In India, the Delimitation exercise is carried out by a Delimitation Commission, whose orders have the force of law and cannot be questioned before any court. These orders come into force on a date to be specified by the President of India on this behalf. The copies of its orders are laid before the House of the People and the State Legislative Assembly concerned, but no modifications are permissible therein by them.

Question 34

Consider the following statements with reference to the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC):

1. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Communications.

2. The Board consists of official members and a chairman which are appointed by the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Statements 1 is not correct: The Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, regulating the public exhibition of films under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952. Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the Central Board of Film Certification.

Statements 2 is not correct: The Board consists of non-official members and a chairman (all of whom are appointed by Central Government) and functions with headquarters at Mumbai. It has nine regional offices, one each at Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore, Thiruvananthapuram, Hyderabad, New Delhi, Cuttack and Guwahati. The Regional Offices are assisted in the examination of films by Advisory Panels. The members of the panels are nominated by Central Government by drawing people from different walks of life for a period of 2 years. The Certification process is in accordance with The Cinematograph Act, 1952, The Cinematograph (Certification) Rules, 1983, and the guidelines issued by the Central government u/s 5 (B).

Question 35

Ocean Water Movement

With reference to Turbidity currents, consider the following statements:

1. They are slow-moving currents.

2. They are caused by increased density due to high amounts of sediment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Statement 1 is not correct: Turbidity currents are fast-moving currents that sweep down submarine canyons, carrying sand and mud into the deep sea. They are involved in large-scale movements of the seafloor. Turbidity currents are still a threat today, as people place more and more cables, pipelines, and other structures on the seafloor. They are also important to petroleum geologists because they leave behind layers of sediment that comprise some of the world’s largest oil reserves.

Statement 2 is correct: Turbidity currents are caused by increased density due to high amounts of sediment. Turbidity currents can be caused by earthquakes, collapsing slopes, and other geological disturbances. Once set in motion, the turbid water rushes downward and can change the physical shape of the seafloor by eroding large areas and creating underwater canyons. These currents also deposit huge amounts of sediment wherever they flow, usually in a gradient or fan pattern, with the largest particles at the bottom and the smallest ones on top.

Question 36

Basic Concepts And Issues

Consider the following statements with reference to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF):

1. It was established in 1989 by a Group of Twenty (G-20) Summit in Paris.

2. Its mandate incorporates efforts to combat terrorist financing.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Statement 1 is not correct: The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) was established in July 1989 by a Group of Seven (G-7) Summit in Paris.

Statement 2 is correct: The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) was established initially to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering. In October 2001, the FATF expanded its mandate to incorporate efforts to combat terrorist financing, in addition to money laundering. In April 2012, it added efforts to counter the financing of proliferation of Weapons of Mass Destruction.

Since its inception, the FATF has operated under a fixed lifespan, requiring a specific decision by its Ministers to continue. The objectives of the FATF are to set standards and promote effective implementation of legal, regulatory, and operational measures for combating money laundering, terrorist financing and other related threats to the integrity of the international financial system.

Question 37

High Court

With reference to the High Court, consider the following statements:

1. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the State.

2. A person who has held a judicial office in India for ten years is eligible for appointment as a Judge of High Court in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Statement 1 is correct: The High Court stands at the head of a State's judicial administration. There are 25 High Courts in the country. Among the Union Territories, Delhi alone has a High Court of its own. The Jammu and Kashmir High Court is a common High Court to Union Territories - Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh. Each High Court comprises a Chief Justice, and such other Judges as the President of India may, from time to time, appoint. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the State.

Statement 2 is correct: The procedure for appointing puisne Judges is the same except that the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned is also consulted. They hold office until the age of 62 years and are removable in the same manner as a Judge of the Supreme Court. To be eligible for appointment as a Judge, one must be a citizen of India and have held a judicial office in India for ten years or must have practiced as an Advocate of a High Court or two or more such Courts in succession for a similar period.

Additional Information:

Each High Court has the power to issue to any person within its jurisdiction directions, orders, or writs, including writs which are like habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and any other purpose. This power may also be exercised by any High Court exercising jurisdiction about territories within which the cause of action, wholly or in part, arises for the exercise of such power, notwithstanding that the seat of such Government or authority or residence of such person is not within those territories.

Question 38

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?

1. The Treaty of Versailles forms the basis of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization.

2. It has the military power to undertake crisis-management operations.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Statement 1 is not correct: The Washington Treaty or North Atlantic Treaty forms the basis of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization or NATO. The Treaty was signed in Washington D.C. on 4 April 1949 by 12 founding members. The Treaty derives its authority from Article 51 of the United Nations Charter, which reaffirms the inherent right of independent States to an individual or collective defence.

Statement 2 is correct: NATO membership is open to any other European State in a position to further the principles of this Treaty and to contribute to the security of the North Atlantic area. NATO promotes democratic values and enables members to consult and cooperate on defence and security-related issues to solve problems, build trust and, in the long run, prevent conflict. NATO is committed to the peaceful resolution of disputes. If diplomatic efforts

fail, it has the military power to undertake crisis-management operations. These are carried out under the collective defence clause of NATO's founding Treaty - Article 5 of the Washington Treaty or under a United Nations mandate, alone or in cooperation with other countries and international organisations.

Question 39

The report titled ‘Suicide worldwide in 2019’ was published by:

a) World Health Organization

b) Doctors Without Borders

c) Partners In Health

d) Care International

Solution

Option (a) is correct: The report titled ‘Suicide worldwide’ in 2019 was published by World Health Organization (WHO). It shows that some 703,000 people, or one in a 100, died by suicide in 2019.

Every suicide is a tragedy that affects families, communities and entire countries and has long-lasting effects on the people left behind. Suicide occurs throughout the lifespan and was the fourth leading cause of death among 15–29-year-olds globally in 2019. Suicide does not just occur in high-income countries but is a global phenomenon in all regions of the world. Over 77% of global suicides occurred in low- and middle-income countries in 2019. Suicide is a serious public health problem; however, suicides are preventable with timely, evidence-based and often low-cost interventions. For national responses to be effective, a comprehensive multisectoral suicide prevention strategy is needed.

Question 40

The Monsoon Winds

Which of the following are permanent winds?

1. Westerlies

2. Trade Winds

3. Monsoon in India

4. Sea breeze

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution

Option (c) is correct: The movement of air from a high-pressure area to the low. The pressure area is called wind. At times the wind can be so strong that it is difficult to walk against it. Winds can be broadly divided into three types.

Permanent winds - These constantly blow throughout the year in a particular direction. The trade winds, Westerlies and Easterlies, are the permanent winds.

Local winds - blow only during a particular period of the day or year in a small area, for example, land and sea breeze. The hot and dry local wind of the northern plains of India is called loo.

Seasonal winds - These winds change their direction in different seasons, for example, monsoons in India.

Question 41

With reference to the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY), consider the following statements:

1. It is designed to provide a continuous power supply to entire rural India.

2. The Rural Electrification Corporation Limited (REC) is the nodal agency for the implementation of the scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Statement 1 is correct: The Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY) is designed to provide a continuous power supply to entire rural India. The scheme was launched under the leadership of Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi in November 2014. It is one of the key initiatives of the Government of India and a flagship programme of the Ministry of Power.

The DDUGJY can benefit rural households significantly as electricity is extremely vital for the growth and development of the country. The scheme replaced the Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana (RGGVY) but features of RGGVY have been subsumed in the new scheme of DDUGJY, and the unspent amount of RGGVY was carried forward to DDUGJY.

Statement 2 is correct: All Discoms are eligible for financial assistance under the scheme. The Rural Electrification Corporation Limited (REC) is the nodal agency for the implementation of the scheme.

The major components of the scheme are:

• Separation of agriculture and non-agriculture feeders facilitating judicious restoring of supply to agricultural & non-agriculture consumers in the rural areas.

• Strengthening and augmentation of sub-transmission & distribution infrastructure in rural areas, including metering of distribution transformers/feeders/consumers.

• Microgrid and off-grid distribution network & Rural electrification already sanctioned projects under RGGVY to be completed.

Question 42

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Land for Life Award?

1. It was launched at the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) in the Republic of Korea.

2. The UNCCD organizes the ‘Land for Life’ Award every year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Statement 1 is correct: The Land for Life Award was launched at the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) Conference of the Parties (COP) 10 in the Republic of Korea (in 2011) as part of the Changwon Initiative. This year’s theme is ‘Healthy Land, Healthy Lives’.

Statement 2 is not correct: The UNCCD organizes the ‘Land for Life’ Award every two years. The Award recognizes excellence and innovation in efforts towards land in balance. Past editions shed light on inspiring initiatives of recovery and restoration of degraded landscapes worldwide. They all made a significant contribution towards achieving Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 15: "Life on Land”, target 15.3 land degradation neutrality (LDN).

Question 43 .With reference to SVAMITVA Scheme, consider the following statements:

1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme.

2. Its objective is to reduce property related disputes and legal cases.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Statement 1 is not correct: The Survey of Villages Abadi and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas (SVAMITVA) Scheme is a central sector scheme launched by Hon’ble Prime Minister of India on National Panchayat Day, i.e., 24th April 2020. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) is the Nodal Ministry for the implementation of the scheme. In the States, the Revenue Department / Land Records Department will be the Nodal Department and shall carry out the scheme with the support of the State Panchayati Raj Department. The Survey of India shall work as the technology partner for implementation.

The scheme aims to provide an integrated property validation solution for rural India. The demarcation of rural abadi areas would be done using Drone Surveying technology. This would provide the ‘record of rights’ to village household owners possessing houses in inhabited rural areas in villages which, in turn, would enable them to use their property as a financial asset for taking loans and other financial benefits from Bank.

Statement 2 is correct: The scheme seeks to achieve the following objectives:

• To bring financial stability to the citizens in rural India by enabling them to use their property as a financial asset for taking loans and other financial benefits.

• Creation of accurate land records for rural planning.

• Determination of property tax, which would accrue to the GPs directly in States where it is devolved or else, add to the State exchequer.

• Creation of survey infrastructure and GIS maps that can be leveraged by any department for their use.

• To support the preparation of a better-quality Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) by making use of GIS maps.

• To reduce property related disputes and legal cases.

Question 44

Consider the following statements with reference to the Great Barrier Reef:

1. It contains the world’s largest collection of coral reefs.

2. The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) listed the Great Barrier Reef as a World Heritage Site in 1981.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Statements 1 is correct: The Great Barrier Reef is a site of remarkable variety and beauty on the northeast coast of Australia. It contains the world’s largest collection of coral reefs, with

400 types of coral, 1,500 species of fish and 4,000 types of mollusc. It also holds great scientific interest as the habitat of species

such as the dugong (‘sea cow’) and the large green turtle, which are threatened with extinction.

Statements 2 is correct: The reef is a breeding area for humpback whales migrating from the Antarctic and is also the habitat of a few endangered species, including the Dugong (Sea Cow) and large Green Sea Turtle. In recognition of its significance, UNESCO listed the Great Barrier Reef as a World Heritage Site in 1981.

Question 45

The International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List of Threatened Species classifieds Pygmy hog as:

a) Critically Endangered

b) Least Concern

c) Near Threatened

d) Endangered

Solution

Option (d) is correct: Pygmy hog is the world’s rarest and smallest wild pigs. The pygmy hog is one of the very few mammals that build its own home, or nest, complete with a ‘roof’. Its presence reflects the health of its primary habitat, the tall, wet grasslands of the region. The International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List of Threatened Species classifies Pygmy hog (Porcula salvania) as Endangered.

Question 46

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY)?

1. Under this scheme, a cash incentive would be provided directly in the bank account of Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers for the first living child of the family.

2. The Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers who are in regular employment with the Central Government are eligible for the scheme.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Statement 1 is correct: The Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is a Centrally Sponsored Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) scheme with the cash incentive of ₹ 5000/- (in three instalments) being provided directly in the bank/post office account of Pregnant Women and

Lactating Mothers for a first living child of the family subject to their fulfilling specific conditions relating to Maternal and Child Health. It would be implemented in all the districts of the country in accordance with the provision of the National Food Security Act, 2013.

Statement 2 is not correct: The objective of the scheme is to provide partial compensation for the wage loss in terms of cash incentives so that the woman can take adequate rest before and after delivery of the first living child of the family. The cash incentive provided would lead to improved health-seeking behaviour amongst Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers. The eligible beneficiaries are all Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers, excluding Pregnant women & Lactating mothers who are in regular employment with the Central Government or the State Governments or Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) or those who receive similar benefits under any law for the time being in force.

Q47. Consider the following statements regarding the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation:

1. It is an international organization of South Asian nations only. 2. It has 7 member countries. 3. All member countries form borders along the Bay of Bengal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is an international organization of seven South Asian and Southeast Asian nations.

The BIMSTEC member states – Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand – are among the countries dependent on the Bay of Bengal. All countries in BIMSTEC do not form a border along the Bay of Bengal.

Q48. Consider the following statements about the e-NAM:

1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal with funding shared by Central Government and state governments. 2. It is implemented by Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC). 3. It integrates markets first at the level of the States and eventually across the country through a common online market platform. 4. Farmers can opt to trade directly on their own through the mobile app or through registered commission agents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1,2 and 3 only b) 2,3 and 4 only c) 1,3 and 4 only d) All of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

National Agriculture Market (NAM) is a pan-India electronic trading portal completely funded by the Central Government and implemented by Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC).

Farmers can opt to trade directly on their own through the mobile app or through registered commission agents.

Objectives:

To integrate markets first at the level of the States and eventually across the country through a common online market platform, to facilitate pan – India trade in agricultural commodities.

To streamline marketing/transaction procedures and make them uniform across all markets to promote the efficient functioning of the markets.

To establish quality assaying systems for quality assurance to promote informed bidding by buyers.

To promote stable prices and the availability of quality products to consumers.

Q49. Consider the following statements regarding India’s defence exports:

1. 1.India's defence exports has hit an all-time high of ₹13,000 crore during FY21-22. 2. The share of private sector accounts for 70 per cent in defence exports, while remaining 30 percent comes from Defence Public Sector Undertakings. 3. During FY21, Vietnam was the India’s biggest defence customer.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

India's defence exports has hit an all-time high of ₹13,000 crore during FY21-22.

The share of private sector accounts for 70 per cent in defence exports, while remaining 30 percent comes from Defence Public Sector Undertakings.

During FY21, the U.S. was the India’s biggest defence customer.

Q50. With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following?

1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units. 2. Create meaningful short stories and songs. 3. Disease diagnosis. 4. Text-to-Speech Conversion. 5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy.

Choose the correct option:

a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2, 4 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Artificial Intelligence (AI) refers to the simulation of human intelligence in machines that are programmed to think like humans and mimic their actions.

Applications: Healthcare, entertainment, finance, education e.g. disease diagnosis, creating songs like ‘I am AI’ and ‘Daddy’s Car’ and creating short stories and fictions, Text -to -speech conversion, e.g. Cerewave AI, Machine -learning assisted power transfer (based on AI) using magnetic resonance and AI used for energy efficiency.

Q51. Consider the following statements regarding the Telecom Industry in India:

1. India’s telecom industry is the third largest in the world. 2. BSNL had almost five times more subscribers in rural areas compared with Reliance Jio and Bharti Airtel.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (D)

Explanation: As per the National Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency,

India’s telecom industry is the second largest in the world.

The country’s overall tele-density is 84.88%.

Urban market’s tele-density in 134.70%.

Rural market is largely untapped at about 58.2%.

Reliance Jio and Bharti Airtel have almost five times more subscribers in rural areas compared with BSNL

Q52. Which of the following are the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC)?

1. India 2. Iran 3. Afghanistan 4. Kazakhstan 5. Russia

Choose the correct option:

a) 1, 2, and 3 only b) 1, 3, 4, 5 only c) 1, 2, and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 only

Answer: (C)