upsc mock test

Constitutional bodies- question

Election Commission

1. Which of the following is not a constitutional authority?

(a) State Election Commission

(b) State Finance Commission

(d) State Electoral Officer

2. Which one among the following commissions was set up in

pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the

Constitution of India?

(a) University Grants Commission

(b) National Human Rights Commission

(d) Central Vigilance Commission

3. What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(a) Five years

(b) During the ‘pleasure’ of the President

(d) Five years or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier

4. Consider the following statements regarding state election

commission

1. The state election commission is appointed by the Governors of

the respective states.

2. State election commission conducts election to the panchayats

only

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Consider the following functions of State Election Commission

and select correct answer by using code given below

1. Prepares the electoral rolls for Panchayats and Municipalities

elections in the State.

2. Conducts elections for Panchayat and Municipalities of the State.

3. Conducts elections to various bodies except Panchayats and

Municipalities as directed by the Governor.

4. Prepares the electoral rolls and conducts elections as assigned

by Election Commission of India.

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 and 4

(d) Only 4

6. Who among the following determines the authority who shall

readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the states

and division of each State into territorial

constituencies?

(a) The President of India

(b) The Parliament of India

(d) The Lok Sabha alone

7. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a

period of

(a) six years

(b) during the pleasure of the President

(d) for 5 years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier

8. Delimitation of constituencies and determination of

constituencies reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled

Tribes are done by

(a) Election Commission

(b) Delimitation Commission

(d) Election Commission with the assistance of Delimitation

Commission

9. Consider the following statements about State Election

Commission ?

1. The State Election Commissioner shall be appointed by the

Governor of the State.

2. The State Election Commission shall have the power of even

preparing the electoral rolls besides the power of

superintendence, direction and control of election to the

panchayats.

3. The State Election Commissioner cannot be removed in any

manner from his office until he demits himself or completes

his tenure.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 only

10. The power to decide the date of an election to a State

Legislative Assembly rests with the

(a) President of India

(b) Chief Minister and his/her Cabinet

(d) Parliament

11. The Election Commissioner can be removed by the

(a) Chief Election Commissioner

(b) Prime Minister

Commissioner

(d) Chief Justice of India

12. Who recognises he political parties in India?

(a) President of India

(b) Election Commission of India

(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

13. Consider the following statements:

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.

2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for

the conduct of both general elections and by-elections.

3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to

splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Comptroller & Auditor General (CAG)

14. The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India was

created

(a) Through an act of the parliament

(b) By the Constitution

(d) None of the above

15. Consider the following statements :

1. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India has no control over

the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund of India.

2. The term of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of

India has been fixed by an Act enacted by Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. Which of the following statements regarding the Comptroller and

Auditor General of India is / are true?

The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India:

1. Can be considered by the joint session of both Houses of

Parliament

2. Includes examination of income and expenditure of all public

sector undertaking

3. Is placed before the Lok Sabha with the comments of the

Estimates Committee

4. Constitutes the basis for scrutiny by the Public Accounts

Committee of the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(d) Only 4

17. Consider the following statements :

The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India has to:

1. Audit government expenditure

2. Make financial policy

3. Sanction grants to various departments

4. See that public expenditure are in conformity with the

government rules

Of these statements :

(a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

(b) 1 and 3 are correct

(d) 1 and 4 are correct

18. Who among the following can only be removed from the office in

like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme

Court?

1. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

2. Chief Election Commissioner

3. Chairman, Union Public Service Commission

4. Attorney General for India

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

19. The provision of the Act relating to the duties of the Comptroller

and Auditor-General of India are to audit and report on all the

expenditure form which of the following?

1. Consolidated Fund of India

2. Consolidated Fund of each State

3. Contingency Fund of India

4. Public Account of India

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

20. The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the

President. He can be removed

(a) by the President

(b) on an address from both Houses of Parliament

(d) by CJI

21. What is the Terms of the Comptroller and Auditor General of

India?

(a) 6 years

(b) upto 65 years of age

(d) upto 64 years of age

22. Who is called the Guardian of public purse?

(a) President

(b) Comptroller and Auditor-General

(d) Council of Ministers

23. Which of the following statement about Comptroller and Auditor

General of India (CAG) are correct?

1. The CAG will hold office for a period of six years from the date he

assumes the office, He shall vacate office on attaining the

age of 65 years, if earlier than the expiry of the 6 years term

2. The powers of CAG are derived from the Constitution of India

3. The CAG is a multi-member body appointed by the President of

India in constitution with the prime Minister and the Council

of Ministers.

4. The CAG may be removed by the President only on an address

from both Houses of Parliament, on the grounds of proved

misbehavior or incapacity

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2 only

24. Consider the following statements with respect to the

Comptroller and Auditor General of India

1. He shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the

ground as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

2. He shall not be eligible for further office either under the

Government of India or under the Government of any State

after he has ceased to hold his office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

25. Which of the following statements relating to Comptroller and

Auditor General in India is/are correct?

1. He/She is not an officer of the Parliament but an officer under the

President.

2. He/She is an independent constitutional authority not directly

answerable to the House.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

26. Which of the following statements relating to the comptroller and

Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are correct?

1. The CAG can attend the sittings of the Committee on Public

Accounts.

2. The CAG can attend the sittings of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

3. The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive with powers of the Union

Governement.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

27. The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India was

created

(a) through an Act of the Parliament

(b) by the Constitution

(d) none of the above

28. The comptroller and Auditor General of India –

(a) Can be appointed as a member of UPSC after his retirement

(b) Can be appointed as the Chairman of State Public Service

commission

government or the state government after his retirement

(d) Can be appointed to any office after his retirement

Union Public Service Commission & SPSC

29. Who is the highest civil servant of the Union Government?

(a) Attorney General

(b) Cabinet Secretary

(d) Principal Secretary of the P.M.

30. A member of UPSC may be removed on the ground of

misbehaviour by

(a) Both the Houses of Parliament by way of impeachment

(b) The President on the basis of enquiry by the Supreme Court.

members present and voting.

(d) The PM on the basis of the recommendation of the cabinet

31. Consider the following statements:

1. The first Public Service Commission in India was set up in the

year 1926, on the recommendation of the Lee Commission

on the Superior Civil Services in India.

2. The Government of India Act, 1935, provided for setting up of

public service commissions at both the federal and

provincial levels.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

32. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer

from the codes given below :

Assertion(a) : The All-India Services violate the federal

principal of the Constitution as well as the

autonomy of States.

Reason (R) : The All-India Service officers are governed by

Central Government rules and the State

Government do not have full control over them.

Codes :

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct

explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct

explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

33. Which of the following are the functions of the Union Public

Service Commission?

1. To conduct examinations for recruitment to the services of the

Union.

2. To advise on matters referred to it by the President or the

Governor.

3. To advise on all disciplinary matters affecting a government

servant.

4. To advise on the principles to be followed in respect of

promotions and transfers.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

34. Consider the following statements :

A member of the Union Public Service Commission is :

1. Debarred from re-appointment as a member

2. Ineligible for any other employment under the Central or State

Government

3. Disqualified from becoming a constitutional functionary like a

Governor

Of the above statements :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

(b) 2 and 3 are correct

(d) 1 and 2 are correct

35. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer

from the codes given below :

Assertion (a) : The Union Public Service Commission must be

consulted as regards the reservation of posts for

Backward classes, Scheduled Castes and

Scheduled Tribes.

Reason (R) : The functions of the Union Public Service

Commission are only advisory and the

Government need not act upon the advice of the

Commission in any case.

Codes :

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct

explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct

explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

36. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer

from the codes given below :

Assertion (a) : No qualifications have been prescribed for the

membership of the Union Public Service

Commission.

Reason (R) : The Constitutions does not fix the number of

members of the Union Public Service

Commission.

Codes :

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct

explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct

explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

37. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer

from the codes given below :

Assertion (a) : UPSC is an independent organisation.

Reason (R) : UPSC is a constitutional body.

Codes :

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct

explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct

explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

38. Consider the following statements :

A member of the Union Public Service Commission

1. Is appointed by the President of India.

2. Is ineligible for re-appointment to that office.

3. Holds office for a period of 6 years or till the age of 60 years,

whichever is earlier.

Of the above statements :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

(b) 1 and 2 are correct

(d) 1 and 3 are correct

39. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer

from the codes given below :

Assertion (a) : being chairman of UPSC, one cannot become a

member of Central or State legislature.

Reason (R) : He is completely debarred from any future

employment under the Central or State

Government after retirement.

Codes :

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct

explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct

explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

40. Assertion (a) The number of the Members of the Union Public

Service Commission is preserved in the Constitution of India.

Reason (R) The Union Public Service Commission was constituted

under the provisions in the Constitution of India.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(d) A is false, but R is true

41. Consider the following statements

1. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are appointed by

the President.

2. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are eligible for

further employment under the Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

42. Which of the following is not a Constitutional body?

(a) Union Public Service Commission

(b) State Public Service Commission

(d) Planning Commission

43. Who was the first Chairman of the Uttarakhand Public Service

Commission?

(a) N. P. Navani

(b) S. K. Das

(d) Lt. Gen. M. C. BhandarI

44. Who was the first President of India to make use of ‘Pocket

Veto’?

(a) Zakir Hussain

(b) Sanjeeva Reddy

(d) Gyani Zail Singh

Finance Commission

45. The Constitution of India authorizes the parliament to determine

the qualifications of members of the Finance Commission of

India and the manner in which they should be selected. In this

regard consider the following statements :

1. The commission consists of five members including its

chairperson.

2. Its chairperson necessarily should be an economist.

3. Its members are appointed from different fields such as finance

and accounts, administration, judicial etc.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

46. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to

(a) Distribute revenue between the centre and the state.

(b) Advise the president on financial matters

(d) Allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and state

Governments.

47. Which one of the following authorities recommends the

principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues to the

states out of the consolidated fund of India?

(a) Finance Commission

(b) Inter-State-Council

(d) Public Accounts Committee

48. On which of the following matters, does the Finance

Commission make recommendations to the President of India?

1. The distribution between Union and States of net proceeds of

taxes and allocation between the States of their respective

share, of such proceeds.

2. The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the

revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of

India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

49. Consider the following statements with regard to the Finance

Commission:

1. The recommendations of the Finance Commission cover a

period of five years.

2. The Report of the Finance Commission is submitted to the Prime

Minister.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

50. Which one of the following expenditure is not charged on the

consolidated fund of India?

(a) Salary and allowances of the President of India

(b) Salary and allowances of the Vice President of India

India

(d) Salary and allowances of the speaker of the Lok Sabha

51. Recommendations to the President of India on the specific

Union state fiscal relation are made by the

(a) Finance Minister

(b) Reserve Bank of India

(d) Finance Commission

52. Consider the following statement :

The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India

comprises:

1. Pension payable to Judges of High Court

2. Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable

3. Salary, allowances and pension payable to Comptroller and

Auditor General of India

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

53. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer

from the codes given below :

Assertion (a) : The Finance Commission prescribes the framework

for the working of the Planning Commission.

Reason (R) : The jurisdiction and functions of the Finance

Commission are outlined in the Constitution of

India.

Codes :

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct

explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct

explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

54. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using

the codes given below:

A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 3

(b) 4 3 2 1

(d) 4 1 2 3

55. The principles concerning the provisions of the grant-in-aid to

the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India are

recommended by the :

(a) Planning Commission

(b) Administrative Reforms Commission

(d) Public Accounts Committee

56. Consider the following statements about the Finance

Commission:

1. The duty of the Finance Commission is to make

recommendations as to the distribution of revenue

resources between the Union and the States.

2. It is appointed every fifth year by the President of India

3. It raises revenue for central financial transfers to the States.

4. It borrows money form the market for central grants to the

States.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

57. Financial distribution between the Union and the State takes

place on the basis of the recommendations of which one of the

following?

(a) The National Development Council

(b) The Inter-State Council

(d) The Finance Commission

58. Which among the following functions as a coordinate between

the Planning Commission and State

Governments?

(a) National Integration Council

(b) Finance Commission

(d) None of the above

59. Consider the following qualifications with respect to the finance

commission : or one

1. A judge of High Court or one qualified to be the appointed as

one.

2. A persons who has a specialised knowledge of finance and

accounts of the government.

3. A person who has wide experience in financial matters and in

administration.

4. A person who has special knowledge of economics.

Who among the above can appointed as the member of the finance

commission?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) All of the above

60. Consider the following statements –

The state government shall appoint a finance commission to review

the financial positions of the Panchayats and to make

recommendations as to –

1. The distribution between the state and Panchayats of the net

proceeds of taxes tolls and fees leviable by the states.

2. The determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees which may

be assigned to the Panchayats

3. The principles that will determine grants-is-aid to the panchayats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

61. Consider the following bodies of India.

1. The National Commission for scheduled castes

2. The National Commission for women

3. The National Commission for Backward classes

4. The National Human Rights Commission

Which of the bodies given above is/are established by the constitution

of India?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Other Commissions & Miscellaneous

62. 1. The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes was

constituted under the Constitution (Eighty-ninth

Amendment) Act.

2. The first National Commission for Scheduled Tribes was

constituted in 2006.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

63. The Twentieth Law Commission was constituted through a

government order with effect from 1st Sep. 2012. It has a three

year term ending on 31st Aug. 2015. Who is the chairman of the

commission?

(a) Justice D.K. Jain

(b) Justice J.S. Verma

(d) Justice M. Mualyal

64. Consider the following statements regarding law commission of

India:

1. Recently, the 20th law commission was constituted under the

chairmanship of D.K. Jain

2. The commission is constituted for a period of five years

3. Codification of the penal code, and the Criminal Procedure Code

were recommended by the law commission constituted

under charter Act of 1833.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1,3 and 4 only

65. The Planning Commission has been abolished by the Prime

Minister

(a) Narendra Modi

(b) Morarji Desai

(d) I. K. Gujral

66. The tenure of the Chairman of the National Human Rights

Commission is –

(a) 3 years

(b) 4 years

(d) 6 years

Attorney General & Advocate General

67. Who is the first Law Officer of the Government of India?

(a) Chief Justice of India

(b) Union Law Minister

(d) Law Secretary

68. Who among the following holds his office at the pleasure of the

President?

(a) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission

(b) Attorney General of India

(d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

69. Who among the following can attend the meetings of both

Houses of Parliament while being not a member of either of the

Houses?

(a) Solicitor-General of India

(b) Vice-President of India

(d) Attorney General of India

70. Who advises the Government of India on legal matters?

(a) Attorney General

(b) Chief justice of Supreme Court

(d) None of these

71. Consider the following statements:

1. The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President upon

the recommendation of the Chief Justice of Supreme Court.

2. The Attorney General of India has the right to speak in the

Parliament but he can’t vote.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

72. Consider the following statements about the attorney general of

India:

1. He is appointed by the President of India

2. He must have the same qualifications as required for a judge of

the Supreme Court

3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament

4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament

Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

73. Consider the following statements:

1. The Advocate General of a state in India is appointed by the

President of India upon the recommendation of the

Governor of the concerned state.

2. As provided in Civil procedure Code, High Courts have original

appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the state level

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 Only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

74. Consider the following statements about the Attorney-General of

India?

1. He is appointed by the President of India

2. He has the right to take part in the proceeding of the Parliament.

3. He has the right of audience in all courts in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(d) All of these

75. Consider the following statements with respect to the Attorney

General of India

1. He is appointed by the President.

2. He must have the same qualifications as are required by a Judge

of High Court.

3. In the performance of his duties he shall have the right of

audience in all courts of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

76. Which one of the following has the right to address the

Parliament?

(a) Atorney General of India

(b) Chief Election Commissioner of India

(d) National Security Advisor

77. Which officer of the Government of india has the right to take

part in the proceedings of Parliament of India even though he is

not a member?

(a) Vice - President

(b) Attorney General of India

(d) Election Commissioner

78. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the

Attorney General of India?

1. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge

of a High court, to be the Attorney General of India.

2. He has the right to audience in all the Courts of the country.

3. He has the right to take part in the Proceedings of the Lok Sabha

and the Rajya Sabha.

4. He has a fixed tenure.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 3 only

Union government - questions

Union Legislature

1. Any amendment in the Constitution of India, in regard to which of

the following subjects, needs only simple majority of the

parliament?

1. Directive principles of state policy.

2. Election of the President and its manner

3. Quorum in the Parliament

4. Creation of the Legislative Council in a State

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

2. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional

amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislature

of not less than one half of the states?

1. Election of the president

2. Representation of the states in parliament

3. Any of the lists in the 7th schedule

4. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

3. Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India?

1. The President shall not be a member of either House of

Parliament.

2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two

Houses.

Choose the correct answer from the codes give below:

(a) 1 only

(b) Both 1and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of

India for implementing international treaties?

(a) With the consent of all the states

(b) With the consent of majority of states

(d) Without the consent of any state.

5. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the

administration?

(a) Through Parliamentary Committee

(b) Through Consultative Committee of various ministers

(d) By compelling the executives to issue writs

6. Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional

Amendments.

1. In Article 368, two methods of Constitutional Amendment are

mentioned.

2. Constitutional Amendment Bill can be initiated only in Lok

Sabha.

3. In case of any dispute between two Houses of Parliament on

Constitutional Amendment Bill, Joint sitting of both houses

can be summoned.

4. The President cannot veto a Constitutional Amendment Bill.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

7. The States of the Indian Union can be reorganised or their

boundaries altered by:

(a) The Union Parliament by a simple majority in the ordinary

process of legislation.

(b) Two-thirds majority of both the Houses of Parliament.

consent of the legislature of the concerned States.

(d) An executive order of the Union Government with the consent of

the concerned State Governments.

8. Consider the following statements:

1. A Constitutional amendment inserting a regulation in the Ninth

Schedule can be challenged on the ground of violation of

basic structure of the Constitution.

2. Any legislation enacted by Parliament cannot be successfully

challenged for affecting the basic structure of the

Constiution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. Consider the following statements :

1. An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the

introduction of a Bill only in the Lok Sabha.

2. The Bill for amendment of the Constitution of India has to be

passed in each House by a majority of the total membership

of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of

the members of that House Present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. Which of the following are matters on which the Parliament has

the power to modify provisions of the Constitution by a simple

majority ?

1. Alternation of names, boundaries and areas of States.

2. Appointment of additional judges

3. Abolition of the second chamber of a State Legislature

4. Administration of Scheduled Areas

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

11. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer

from the codes given below :

Assertion (a) : By amendment, Parliament cannot destroy the

basic features of the Constitution.

Reason (R) : The power to amend does not include the power

to abrogate the Constitution.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct

explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct

explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

12. Consider the following statements :

1. There was a special provision for the Anglo-Indian community in

certain services.

2. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of

Atrocities) Act was passed in 1955.

3. The Untouchability (Offences) Act, was renamed as the

Protection of Civil Rights Act.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1 and 3

13. Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance bill sent for its consideration

by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of

(a) One month

(b) One Year

(d) Fourteen days

14. In which of the following houses the chairperson is not the

member of that house?

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) Rajya Sabha

(d) Legislative council

15. Who amongst the following is not entitled to take part in the

activities of Lok Sabha?

(a) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(b) The Attorney General of India

(d) The Secretary to President of India

16. The state wise allocation of seats in Lok Sabha is based on the

1971 census. Up to which year does this remain intact?

(a) 2031

(b) 2026

(d) 2011

17. How many members are nominated by the president in the

Rajya Sabha

(a) 2

(b) 10

(d) 15

18. A bill presented in Parliament becomes an Act after

(a) It is passed by both the Houses.

(b) The president has given his assent

(d) The Supreme Court has declared it to be within the competence

of the Union Parliament

19. According to our Constitution, the Rajya Sabha

(a) is dissolved once in two years.

(b) is dissolved every five years.

(d) is not subject of dissolution

20. As a non-member who can participate in the proceedings of

either House of Parliament

(a) Vice President

(b) Chief Justice

(d) Chief Election Commissioner

21. In which house is the presiding officer not a member of that

house?

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) Rajya Sabha

(d) Vidhan parishad

22. Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of

India is not correct?

(a) The Constitution provides for a parliamentary form of

government

(b) The foremost function of the parliament is to provide a cabinet

(d) The cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of the majority in the

popular chamber

23. The first speaker against whom a motion of non-confidence was

moved in the Lok Sabha was

(a) Balram Jakhar

(b) G.V. Mavalankar

(d) K.S. Hegde

24. Indian Parliament consists of

(a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

(b) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister

(d) President and both the Houses

25. Money bill is introduced in

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) Rajya Sabha

(d) None of the above

26. The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list

(a) by the wish of the president

(b) if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution

(d) by asking the legislature of the concerned state

27. The function of the pro-tem in the absence of Speaker is to

(a) conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of

speakers.

(b) officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected

(d) None of the above

28. Which of the following is the most appropriate tool to raise the

issue of Naxalism activities in the Lok Sabha?

(a) Calling attention motion

(b) Discussion under Rule 377

(d) Short duration discussion

29. What is the maximum time interval permissible between two

successive sessions of the parliament?

(a) 4 months

(b) 5 months

(d) 3 months

30. Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

(a) The President

(b) The Vice-President

(d) The Speaker

31. Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?

(a) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(b) The President

(d) None of these

32. The speaker’s vote in the Lok Sabha is called

(a) Casting vote

(b) Sound vote

(d) Indirect vote

33. The chairman of the Lok Sabha is designated as

(a) Chairman

(b) Speaker

(d) President

34. Who decides whether a Bill is a money Bill or not?

(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(b) The President

(d) The Parliamentary Select Committee

35. In order to be recognised as an official opposition group in the

Parliament

(a) 1/3rd of the total strength

(b) 1/4th of the total strength

(d) 1/10th of the total strength

36. Rajya Sabha enjoys more power than the Lok Sabha in the

case of

(a) Money bills

(b) Non-money bills

(d) Amendment of the Constitution

37. The speaker of the Lok Sabha can resign his office by

addressing his resignation to

(a) The President

(b) The Prime Minister

(d) The Chief Justice of India

38. The bill of which of the following categories can be initiated only

in Lok Sabha?

(a) ordinary Bill

(b) Private members Bill

(d) Constitution Amendment Bill

39. Which of the following appointments is not made by the

President of India?

(a) Speakers of the Lok Sabha

(b) Chief Justice of India

(d) Chief of Army

40. The most important feature of the Indian Parliament is that

(a) It is the Union Legislature in India

(b) It also comprises of the President

(d) The Upper House of the Parliament is never dissolved

41. The allocation of seats in the present Lok Sabha is based on

which one of the following census?

(a) 1971

(b) 1981

(d) 2001

42. Who among the following was not elected for two terms as the

Speaker of Lok Sabha?

(a) G.M.C. Balayogi

(b) N. Sanjiva Reddy

(d) Baliram Bhagat

43. ‘Zero Hour’ in political jargon refers to (a) Suspended motion

(b) Question hour

(d) Question-answer session

44. What is the term of a Member of the Rajya Sabha?

(a) Three years

(b) Four years

(d) Six years

45. Which among the following was NOT constituted as per

mandate of Constitution of India?

(a) Election Commission

(b) NITI Aayog

(d) Inter State Council

46. In terms of Parliamentary terminology, What do we call a rule of

legislative procedure under which a further debate on a motion

can be stopped?

(a) Closure

(b) Gullitone

(d) Recess

47. The Government Bill means a bill introduced by a

(a) Member of the Treasury bench in the Lok Sabha

(b) Member of the Parliament who is not a Minister

(d) Minister in any House of the Parliament.

48. When an ordinary Bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the

Houses of Indian Parliament, it has to be passed by a

(a) simple majority of the total number of members of both the

Houses present and voting

(b) two-third majority of the total number of members of both the

Houses

(d) two-third majority of the total number of members of both the

Houses present and voting

49. Joint Parliamentary Sessions in India are chaired by the

(a) President of India

(b) Vice-President of India who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

(d) Prime Minister of India

50. The members of the Lok Sabha from the Union Territories of

India are:

(a) Nominated by the President

(b) Elected by the members of local bodies of the Union Territories.

(d) Chosen by direct election in Puducherry whereas nominated by

the president in other territories.

51. The first reading of the Bill in a House of Parliament refers to

(a) The motion for leave to introduce a Bill in the House

(b) The general discussion on the Bill as whole where only the

principle underlying the Bill is discussed and not the details

of the bill.

details.

(d) The state when the Bill is referred either to select committee of

the House or to the joint committee of the two houses.

52. Consider the following statements :

1. Ministers are liable for the official acts done by the President or

the governor on their advice.

2. The ministers can be sued for crimes as well as torts in ordinary

courts like common citizen.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

53. Which of the following Bills requires prior assent of the

President before presenting in the Parliament?

1. A Bill for the formation of boundaries of a state

2. A money Bill

3. A Bill which involved expenditures from the consolidated fund of

India

4. A Bill affecting taxation in which the interest of states is vested

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

54. Though the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha are constitutent part of

Parliament, on some subject they have unequal powers which of

the following matters depict the difference of powers between

these two houses?

1. No confidence motion

2. Power to vote on Demand for Grants

3. Impeachment of judges of the High Court

4. Passing of laws in the national interest on the subject

enumerated in state list

5. Creation of all India services.

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2 and 5 only

55. Which among the following have the right to vote in the

elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?

1. Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament

2. Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament

3. Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature.

4. Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 4 only

56. The speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking

and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as?

(a) Decorum

(b) Crossing the floor

(d) Yielding the floor

57. The term of the Lok Sabha

(a) Can’t be extended under any circumstances

(b) Can be extended by six months at a time

of emergency

(d) Can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation

of emergency

58. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have

nominated members

(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members

belonging to the Anglo-Indian Community to the Rajya

Sabha.

appointed as a Union Minister

(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice

Presidential elections

59. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds

on which it is based.

(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no

conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the rules.

within ten days of leave being granted.

(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of noconfidence.

60. Consider the following statements:

1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be

in national interest for the parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the state list.

2. Resolutions approving the proclamation of emergency are

passed only by the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither1 nor 2

61. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House

of the Indian parliament separately, by special majority.

(a) ordinary Bill

(b) Money Bill

(d) Constitution Amendment Bill

62. Consider the following statements regarding ‘No confidence

motion’

1. Only a motion expressing want of confidence in the council of

ministers as a whole is admitted and one expressing lack of

confidence in an individual minister is out of order

2. A no confidence motion needs to set out grounds on which it is

based.

3. Any no confidence motion once moved can’t be withdrawn

4. Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no

confidence

Which of the following given above are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2, and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

63. In both the Houses of Parliament under the automotive vote

recorder system each member casts his vote from the seat

allotted to him. Consider the following:

1. Green button represents AYES

2. Red button represents ABSTAIN

3. Black button represent NOES

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

64. Which of the following is/are correct regarding effect of motions

or resolutions adopted by the Houses of

Parliament?

1. The resolution expressing merely an opinion of the Houses is not

binding on the government.

2. The resolutions adopted by the Houses on matters concerning

its own proceeding are not binding.

3. Resolutions having a statutory effect, if adopted, are binding on

the government.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

65. When the House of people clearly and conclusively determines

that the government does not command its support, the

government has to resign. By which of the ways parliamentary

confidence in the government may be expressed by the House

of People?

1. Defeating the government on a major issue of policy.

2. Passing an adjournment motion

3. Defeating the government on finance issues

4. Passing a motion of no confidence in the council of ministers.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

66. Consider the following statements related to women members

of 15th Lok Sabha

1. They are less than 10% of the total members of the Lok Sabha.

2. The maximum women members are from Indian National

Congress.

3. Three women members are elected from Rajasthan.

4. The maximum women members are elected from Uttar Pradesh.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

67. Which of the following statements are correct about Indian

Government?

1. Rajya Sabha represents the local interests of the States.

2. A member of Rajya Sabha must be a resident of the State from

which he is elected.

3. Number of seats allotted to a State has to be proportionate to its

population.

4. The term of a member of Rajya Sabha is same as that of

Senator in the US.

Codes:

(a) 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

68. Consider the following statements :

1. For the Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter

enumerated in the State List, a resolution must be passed in

both the Houses of the Parliament.

2. A resolution passed as stated above can be extended beyond

one year.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

69. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer

from the codes given below :

Assertion (a) : The President of India can return any bill

passed by Parliament of reconsideration of the

Houses.

Reason (R) : The President cannot return money bills to the

Parliament for reconsideration of the Houses.

Codes :

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct

explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct

explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

70. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer

from the codes given below :

Assertion (a) : The President is part of the Parliament.

Reason (R) : A bill passed by the two Houses of Parliament

cannot become law without the assent of the

President.

Codes :

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct

explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct

explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

71. Consider the following statement :

1. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by

the Lok Sabha shall lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

2. A bill pending in Parliament shall lapse by reason of the

propogation of the Houses.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

72. Consider the following statement :

1. The Chairman of the Council of States or Speaker of the House

of the People, or person acting as such, shall not vote at

any sitting of either House of Parliament or joint sitting of

the House in the first instance, but shall have and exercise

a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.

2. A person is qualified to fill a seat in the Council of States or

House of the People if he is not less than twenty-five years

of age.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

73. Consider the following statements relating to the procedure of

the election of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok

Sabha:

1. The election of a Speaker shall be held on such date as the

Prime Minister may fix and the Secretary General shall send

to every member notice of this date.

2. The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as

the Speaker may fix and the Secretary General shall send

to every member notice of this date.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

74. Consider the following statements :

1. The nature of a Bill, if it is certified by the Speaker of the House

of People as a Money Bill, is not open to question in a Court

of Law.

2. The President of India has the power to question the nature of a

Bill to be taken as a Money Bill even if it is certified to be so

by the Speaker of the House of People.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

75. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

State No. of members in

the Rajya Sabha

(a) Maharashtra – 19

(b) Tamil Nadu – 18

(d) West Bengal – 16

76. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer

from the codes given below :

Assertion (a) : After a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha and

transmitted to the Rajya Sabha, the

recommendations of the Rajya Sabha have to be

accepted by the Lok Sabha within 14 days from

receipt of the recommendations and then get them

incorporated in the Bill.

Reason (R) : A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya

Sabha.

Codes :

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct

explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct

explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

77. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer

from the codes given below :

Assertion (a) : Money bills originate only in the Lower House of

Parliament.

Reason (R) : The Lower House of the Parliament is a popularly

elected body.

Codes :

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct

explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct

explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

78. Which of the following is/are correct in respect of ‘Zero Hour’

discussion?

1. It is not directed against individual Minister.

2. It covers questions raised over matters of public importance.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

79. Which of the following regarding the Rajya Sabha are correct?

1. It is not subject to dissolution.

2. It has a term of six years.

3. One-third of its members retire after every two years.

4. Its members shall not be less than 25 year of age.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 4

80. Who is responsible to make changes in names and boundaries

of the states?

(a) Prime Minister

(b) Parliament

(d) Governor

81. Govt. decided to add four new tribes, Abuj Maria, Korba, Hill

Korba and Kodaku into the list of scheduled tribes. Which of the

following is/are correct in regard to granting the status of

scheduled tribe to a tribe?

1. President has the authority to include or exclude a tribe from the

list of schedule tribes.

2. The criterion for a community to be recognized as scheduled

tribe is not spelled out in the constitution

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

82. A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to

continue as a Member of the House if the Member

(a) voluntarily gives up his / her membership of the political party

from which he /she was elected

(b) is expelled by the political party from which he / she had been

elected to the House

candidate

(d) abstains from voting contrary to the direction by his / her political

party

83. Which of the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha is /

are correct ?

1. The maximum Permissible strength of Rajya Sabha is 250

2. In Rajya Sabha, 238 members are elected indirectly from the

States ans Union Territories.

3. It shares legislative powers equally with Lok Sabha in matters

such as creation of All India Services

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 only

84. A Bill is deemed to be a ‘Money Bill’ if it has any provisions

dealing with

1. imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax

2. appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India

3. imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties

4. payment of fee for licences or fee for service rendered

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2 only

85. After the general elections, the Protem Speaker is

(a) elected by the Lok Sabha

(b) appointed by the President of India

(d) the senior most member of the Lok Sabha

86. Which one of the following statements about the process of the

Parliament to make new States is not correct?

(a) The Parliament may by law form a new State and alter the

boundaries or names of existing States.

(b) A Bill to this effect cannot be introduced in the Parliament except

on the recommendation of the President.

Legislature of the affected State.

(d) Such a law will fall under the purview of Article 368.

87. Consider the following statements

1. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Council of States.

2. The Council of States cannot reject a Money Bill nor amend it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

88. Consider the following statements

1. The Annual Appropriation Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha in the

same manner as any other Bill.

2. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an

introduction of a Bill in either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

89. Who among the following was the first Speaker of the Lok

Sabha?

(a) M A Ayyangar

(b) G V Mavalankar

(d) N Sanjiva Reddy

90. The quorum for Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament is

(a) One- twelveth of the total number of members of the House

(b) One-sixth of the total numbers of members of the House

(d) Two-third of the total number of members of the House

91. Identify the correct sequence of passing a Budget in the

Parliament

(a) Vote on Account, Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill Discussion on

Budget

(b) Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill, Discussion on Budget, Vote on

Accounts

Appropriation Bill

(d) Discussion on Budget, Appropriation Bill, Finance Bill, Vote on

Account

92. The function of a Protem Speaker is to

(a) conduct the proceeding of the House in the absence of the

Speaker

(b) officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is to be elected

(d) scrutinize the authenticity of the election certificates of members

93. Consider the following statements

1. The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is distributed

among the States on the basis of the population and the

area of the State.

2. The 84th Amendment Act of the Constitution of India lifted the

freeze on the delimitation of constituencies imposed by the

42nd Amendment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

94. With reference to the conduct of government business in the

Parliament of India, the term ‘closure’ refers

(a) suspension of debate at the terminatan of a day’s sitting of the

Parliament

(b) a rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a

motion can be halted

(d) refusal on the part of tie Government to have the opposition look

at important documents

95. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one

among the following statements is not correct? [2012-I]

(a) A money bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha

(b) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a

money bill

(d) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the Demands for

Grants

96. Suppose a Legislation was passed by the Parliament imposing

certain restrictions on newspapers. These included page ceiling,

price and advertisements. The legislation is included in the Ninth

Schedule to the Constitution of India. In this context, which one

among the following statements is

correct?

(a) The legislation is invalid as it violates the Freedom of Press

(b) The legislation is valid by virtue of Article 31 B

under Article 19 (2) of the Constitution

(d) The legislation is valid as the Press is not a citizen under Article

19 of the Constitution

97. In the Rajya Sabha, the states have been given seats

(a) in accordance with their population

(b) equally

(d) on the basis of present economic status

98. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from office

(a) the majority party in the house adopting a no-confidence motion

(b) a resolution passed by not less than half of the total membership

of the house

(d) a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the house

99. Consider the following statements relating to the procedure of

the election of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok

Sabha

1. The election of a Speaker shall be held on such date as the

Prime Minister may fix and the Secretary General shall send

to every member . notice of this date.

2. The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as

the Speaker may fix and the Secretary General shall send

to every member notice of this date.

3. At anytime before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed,

any member may give notice in writing of a motion that

another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the

House.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3

(b) Only 2

(d) All of these

100. Besides representation, the Parliament of India is also a

deliberative body with diverse functions.

Which one among the following is not a function of the Parliament of

India?

(a) Ventilating the grievances of the people

(b) Executing major policy decisions

expenditure

(d) Amending the Constitution

101. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States

(b) The Council of States has no power to reject or amend a Money

Bill

and not to the Council of States

(d) The House of the People has special powers with respect to the

State List compared to the Council of States

102. The subject matter of an adjournment motion in the

Parliament 1. must be directly related to the conduct of the Union Government.

2. may involve failure of the Government of India to perform its

duties in accordance with the Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

103. Which of the statements relating to the Deputy Speaker of the

Lok Sabha is/are correct?

1. The office of the Deputy Speaker acquired a more prominent

position after the enforcement of the Constitution of India in

1950.

2. He/She is elected from amongst the members.

3. He/She holds office until he/she ceases to be a member of the

House.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

104. After a Bill has been passed by the Houses of the Parliament, it

is presented to the President who may either give assent to the

Bill or withhold his assent. The President may

(a) assent within six months

(b) assent or reject the Bill as soon as possible

him with a message requesting the House to reconsider the

Bill

(d) with hold his assent even if the Bill is passed again by the

Houses

105. Which of the following principles is/are taken into consideration

by the Speaker while recognising a parliamentary party or

group?

1. An association of members who have an organisation both inside

and outside the House

2. An association of members who shall have at least one-third of

the total number of members of the House

3. An association of members who have a distinct programme of

parliamentary work

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) Onfy 1

(d) 2 and 3

106. There are provisions in the Constitution of India which empower

the Parliament to modify or annul the operation of certain

provisions of the Constitution without actually amending

them.

They include

1. any law made under Article 2 (relating to admission or

establishment of new states)

2. any law made under Article 3 (relating to formation of new states)

3. amendment of First Schedule and Fourth Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) None of these

107. Which of the following statements in the context of structure of

the Parliament is/are correct?

1. The Parliament of India consists of the President, the Council of

States and the House of the People.

2. The President of India is directly elected by an electoral college

consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the

Parliament only.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

108. The legislative power of the Parliament includes making

laws

1. on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List and State List.

2. in respect of entries in the State List if two or more State

Legislatures consider it desirable

3. for implementing any treaty agreement or convention with any

country even if it falls in the State List.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) Only 2

(b) 1 and 2

(d) All of these

109. Which one of the following statements regarding the

Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the

empowerment of women is correct?

(a) The Committee will consist of members of the Lok Sabha only

(b) A Cabinet Minister can be a member of the Committees

exceed two years

(d) It reports on the working of welfare programmes for the women

110. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Joint

Session of the Houses of the Parliament in India?

1. It is an enabling provision, empowering the President to take

steps for resolving deadlock between the two Houses.

2. It is not obligatory upon the President to summon the Houses to

meet in a join sitting.

3. It is being notified by the President.

4. It is frequently resorted to establish the supremacy of the Lok

Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

111. Certain Bills can not be introduced or proceeded with unless the

recommendation of the President is received. However, no

recommendation is required in some other cases. In which one

of the following cases such recommendation is not

required?

(a) For introduction of Bills and for moving amendments relating to

financial matters

(b) For introduction of a Bill relating to formation of new states or of

alternation of areas of existing states

or abolition of any tax

(d) For introduction of a Bill or moving of an amendment affecting

taxation in which states are interested

112. When martial law is imposed, Parliament cannot make law in

respect of which one of following matters ?

(a) Indemnify any person in respect of any act done by him in

connection with the maintenance of order in the area where

martial law was in force

(b) Parliament can by law validate any sentence passed when

martial law was in force in the area

law was in force in the area

(d) Any act done under martial law can be validated by Parliament by

law

113. Which one of the following statements about Money Bill is

correct ?

(a) A Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill only if it Provides for

imposition of fines or penalties

(b) A Money Bill shall be introduced in the Rajya Sabha

(d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha finally decides if it is a Money Bill,

should any dispute about it arise

114. Joint sittings of the two Houses of Indian Parliament are held

(a) elect the President of India

(b) elect the Vice President of India

(d) consider and pass a Bill on which the two Houses disagree

115. The Union Parliament can also legislate on a subject of State

List. 1. to give effect to international agreement.

2. with the consent of the State concerned.

3. during President’s rule in the State.

4. in the national interest, when Rajya Sabha passes a resolution

to this effect by a 2/3rd majority.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) All the four

116. The cardinal features of political system in India are

1. It is a democratic republic.

2. It has a Parliamentary form of government.

3. The Supreme Power vests in the people of India.

4. It provides for a unified authority.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) All the four

117. The Provision for the Calling Attention Notices has restricted

the scope of which of the following?

(a) Short duration discussion

(b) Question hour

(d) Zero hour

118. Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of

India is NOT correct?

(a) The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form of

Government

(b) The foremost function of the Parliament is to provide a Cabinet

(d) The Cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of the majority in the

popular Chamber.

119. The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the State list

(a) by the wish of the President

(b) if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution

(d) by asking the legislature of the concerned state

120. No money bill can be introduced in the Legislative Assembly of

the a State, except on the recommendations

(a) the Parliament

(b) the Governor of the State

(d) a Special Committee of Ministers

121. Which of the following are correct about the Rajya

Sabha?

1. It is not subject to dissolution

2. It has a term of five years

3. One third of its members retire after every two year

4. Its member shall not be less then 25 years of age

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Codes :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 4

122. Who nominates the Chairman of the Public Accounts

Committee of Indian Parliament?

(a) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

(b) The Prime Minister

(d) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha

123. Who among the following was the member of Lok Sabha

during his Prime Ministership?

(a) Deva Gowda

(b) I.K.Gujral

(d) Dr. Manmohan Singh

124. Who among the following was the first Tribal speaker of Lok

Sabha?

(a) G. V. Mavalankar

(b) G. M. C. Balayogi

(d) P. A. Sangma

125. Which of the following is/are the common feature(s) between

the Indian political system and the US political

system?

(a) Residuary powers belong to the centre.

(b) Residuary powers are with the states.

(d) Upper houses have some nominated members.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) (a), (c) and (d)

(b) (b), (c) and (d)

(d) C only

126. Which of the following Houses has had the longest speeches

by the members?

(a) House of Lords

(b) Lok Sabha

(d) Swiss Council of States

127. Which one of the following is the correct breakup of the

composition of Lok Sabha Constituencies?

128. Consider the following statements and select the correct

answer from the codes given below :

I. Subject to legislation by Parliament, the power to declare any

area as a ‘Scheduled area ‘ is given to the President.

II. The 5th Schedule of the Constitution deals with administration of

‘Scheduled Areas’ in Assam, Meghalaya and Tripura.

III. The Government of the states having ‘Scheduled Areas’ have to

submit reports to the President regarding the administration

of such ‘Areas’.

IV. The executive power of the Union Shall extend to giving

directions to the respective states regarding administration

of the ‘Scheduled Areas’.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Codes :

(a) Only I and III

(b) Only I and IV

(d) Only II and III

129. Which one of the following is correctly matched about the

outcome of the XVI Lok Sabha elections?

(a) National Democratic Alliance — 336 seats and 35 percent vote

share.

(b) United Progressive Alliance — 54 seats and 23 per cent vote

share.

(d) Congress — 44 seats and 17 per cent vote share.

130. The number of Rajya Sabha members from Uttarakhand is

– (a) one

(b) two

(d) five

131. Which of the following may be considered a Pressure

Group?

(a) Members of the Lok Sabha

(b) Member of a Panchayat

(d) Members of a trade union

132. Consider the following statements –

1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be

in the national interest for the Parliament to legislate with

respect to a matter in the state list.

2. Resolutions approving in the Proclamation of Emergency are

passed only by the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements, given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

133. Consider the following —

1. Elected members of the Lok Sabha.

2. Nominated members of Lok sabha.

3. Elected members of Rajya Sabha.

4. Nominated members of Rajya Sabha.

Who among the above complete the electoral collect of the Vicepresident?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(d) All of the above

134. A seat of a M. P. can be declared vacant if he absents himself

from the house for a continuous period of –

(a) Six month

(b) Two month

(d) None of the above / More than one of the above

135. The privileges enjoyed by members of a parliament are:

I. Freedom from arrest with certain riders.

II. Exemption from attendance as jurors and witnesses.

III. Freedom of Speech.

(a) Only III

(b) I and III

(d) I, II and III

136. The purpose of an adjournment motion is to –

(a) seek the leave of the House to introduce a bill

(b) censure the Government

(d) Draw the attention of the House to a matter of urgent public

importance

137. Members of Parliament enjoy the Privilege of freedom from

arrest in –

(a) Criminal Cases

(b) Civil Cases

(d) All types of cases

138. How many members of Lok Sabha are elected from

Uttarakhand?

(a) 4

(b) 5

(d) 7

139. Who among the following doesn’t take oath of the office?

(a) President

(b) Vice President

(d) Speaker

140. The Tenure of which Lok Sabha was about 6 years?

(a) 5th Lok Sabha

(b) 7th Lok Sabha

(d) 11th Lok Sabha

141. Sitting of Lok Sabha can be terminated by ........ of the house.

(a) Adjournment since die

(b) Prorogation

(d) All of the above

142. Who declare the Rajya Sabha adjourned sine die?

(a) President of India

(b) Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha

(d) Union Cabinet

143. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of

the Council of Ministers through.

1. Adjournment motion

2. Question hour

3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

144. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the

following statements:

1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Memberof

Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the

President of India.

2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the

Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Union Executive

145. The form of oath of office for a minister for the union of India is

enshrined in the

(a) first schedule

(b) second schedule

(d) fourth schedule

146. The Constitution of India vests the executive powers of the

Indian Union in which of the following ?

(a) The prime minister

(b) The president

(d) The parliament

147. The President can be impeached on the grounds of violating the

Constitution by

(a) The Chief Justice of India

(b) The Vice-President of India

(d) The two Houses of Parliament

148. All the executive powers in Indian Constitution are vested with

(a) Prime Minister

(b) Council of Ministers

(d) Parliament

149. Before entering upon his office the President of India has to

make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation. In this oath or

affirmation he swears:

1. To faithfully execute the office

2. To preserve, protect and defend the constitution and the law

3. To devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of

India.

Which one of the contents of the oath or affirmation given above is

correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

150. The President of India has no power to

1. Proclaim a financial emergency in the state

2. Proclaim the future of the constitutional machinery in the state.

Which of the statement(s) given above regarding the special

constitutional status of Jammu and Kashmir is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

151. Consider the following statements :

When a president is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution,

no change can be preferred by either House of Parliament

unless

1. A resolution containing proposal is moved after seven days

notice in writing signed by not less than one fourth of total

number of members of that house.

2. The resolution is passed by the majority of not less than 2/3 rd of

the total membership of that house.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

152. Consider the following statement :

1. On the expiry of the term of five years by the President of India,

the outgoing President must continue to hold office until his

successor enters upon his office.

2. The Electoral College for the President’s election consists of the

elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and

Puducherry also.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

State government= q

1. As per the Constitution of India, what is the limit prescribed for

the number of members in the Legislative Assembly of a State?

(a) 350 members

(b) 400 members

(d) 500 members

2. Which of the following states can nominate two women

members to the legislative assembly?

(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Kerala

(d) Uttar Pradesh

3. The Legislative Council in a State in India can be created or

abolished by the

(a) Parliament on the recommendation of a Governor of the state.

(b) Parliament alone

effect.

(d) Governor of the state on the recommendation of the Council of

Ministers.

4. Consider the following statements regarding the chairman of the

Legislative Council of a state in India:

1. He is elected by the members of the concerned state legislature.

2. He can be removed from his office by a resolution passed by a

majority of all those present and voting members of the

concerned state legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Consider the following facts about the disallowance of State

legislation.

1. The President has no direct power to disallow a bill passed by

the state legislative assembly.

2. But there is a provision for disallowance of the bill, passed by

state legislative assembly, as are reserved by the State

Governor for assent of the President.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

6. Which one of the following states of India has passed a

legislation (1996) making the maintenance of one’s parents

mandatory?

(a) Kerala

(b) West Bengal

(d) Himachal Pradesh

7. The functions of which of the following bodies in India are limited

to advisory nature only?

(a) Legislative Council

(b) Rajya Sabha

(d) Legislative Assembly

8. Who among the following recommends to the Parliament for the

abolition of the Legislative Council in a State?

(a) The President of India

(b) The Governor of the concerned State

(d) The Legislative Assembly of the concerned State

9. Which one of the following states does not have Vidhan

Parishad?

(a) Bihar

(b) Maharashtra

(d) Uttar Pradesh

10. ........................ state assembly has the lowest number of seats

among Indian states .

(a) Sikkim

(b) Goa

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

11. How many nominated members are there in the Legislative

Assembly of Uttarakhand (2016) ?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 4

12. If budget is disclosed before introducing in the Legislative

Assembly, what will happen?

(a) Council of Ministers will have to resign

(b) Chief Minister will have to resign

(d) All of the above

(e) None of the above

13. Which of the following statements is incorrect about Legislative

Council?

(a) 1/3rd of its members are elected by local bodies

(b) President has the final power to decide about its composition

(d) Minimum strength of Legislative Council cannot be less than 40

State Executive

14. The Constitution of India does not contain any provision for the

impeachment of (a) The President

(b) The Governor of state

(d) The Vice President of India

15. Consider the following officials of India;

1. The State election commissioner

2. Chairman of the State Public Service Commission

3. A judge of the High Court

4. The Advocate General of the State.

Which of the officials given above is/are appointed by the governor of

the concerned state?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 4 only

16. Article 156 of the constitution of India provides that a Governor

shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which

he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deduced

from this?

1. No Governor can be removed from his office till the completion of

this term

2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer

from the codes given below :

Assertion (a) : According to the Constitution of India, the same

person cannot function as the Governor of two or

more States at the same time.

Reason (R) : Article 153 of the Constitution states that there

shall be a Governor for each State.

Codes :

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct

explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct

explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

18. The ‘Contingency Fund’ of the state is operated by

(a) The Governor of the state

(b) The Chief Minister of the state

(d) None of the above

19. State Governor is appointed by

(a) Central Cabinet

(b) Chief justice of Supreme Court

(d) President of India

20. A governor can make recommendation to the president on

which of the following issues?

1. Removal of the members of the state PSC

2. Removal of the judges of the High Court

3. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly

4. Declaration of the breakdown of the constitutional machinery in

the state.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

21. Consider the following and select correct answer by using codes

given below

1. The Governor shall take oath or affirmation before entering upon

his office.

2. The format of oath or affirmation is given in the Third schedule of

Indian Constitution.

3. The Governor shall make and subscribe the oath or affirmation in

the presence of Chief Justice of the High Court or in his

absence senior most judge of that Court.

4. The process of oath and affirmation is given in the Article 159 of

Indian Constitution.

Codes:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

22. Select the constitutional duties of the Chief Minister from

following by using codes given below

1. The Chief Minister communicates to the Governor all decisions

of the Council of Ministers related to the administration of the

affairs of the State.

2. The Chief Minister communicates to the Governor the proposals

for legislation.

3. The Chief Minister participates in the meetings of National

Development Council.

4. The Chief Minister submits for the consideration of the Council of

Ministers any matter on which decision has been taken by a

minister but which has not been considered by the council

as if the Governor requires.

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

23. Consider the following statements with respect to the powers of

the Governor of a State :

1. The governor can summon, prorogue and dissolve the State

Assembly.

2. The Governor can adjourn the sittings of the State Assembly.

3. The Governor addresses the first session of the Legislative

Assembly after elections.

4. The Governor causes to lay the annual budget in the State

Assembly.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 4

24. Which of the following are functions to which the scope of the

discretionary powers of the Governor is limited ?

1. The appointment of the Chief Minister

2. The dismissal of the Ministry

3. The dissolution of the Legislative Assembly

4. Assent to Bills

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

25. Consider the following statements:

The Governor of a State has the power of appoint:

1. Judges of the High Court

2. Members of the State Public Service Commission

3. Members of the State Finance Commission

4. The Accountant General

Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

26. Consider the following statements:

Under Article 200 of the Constitution of India, the Governor may:

1. Withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the State Legislature.

2. Reserve the Bill passed by the State Legislature for the

consideration of the President.

3. Return a Bill, other than a Money Bill, for reconsideration of the

legislature.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

27. On which of the following issues can a Governor make

recommendation to the President?

1. Dismissal of the State Council of Ministers

2. Removal of the Judges of the High Court

3. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly

4. Declaration of the breakdown of the Constitution Machinery in

the State

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

28. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer

from the codes given below :

Assertion (a) : Reservation of a State Bill for the assent of the

President is a discretionary power of the

Governor.

Reason (R) : The President of India can disallow a Bill passed

by a State Legislature or return it for

reconsideration.

Codes :

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct

explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct

explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

29. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer

from the codes given below :

Assertion (a) : The Chief Minister of a State is the head of the

Council of Ministers of that State.

Reason (R) : The Chief Minister is responsible to the State

Legislative Assembly and enjoys the support of a

majority in the House.

Codes :

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct

explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct

explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

30. In which of the following bodies, does the Chief Minister of a

State hold membership?

1. National Integration Council

2. National Development Council

3. Inter-State Council

4. Zonal Council

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

31. Consider the following statements :

1. The Governor cannot function without the State Council of

Ministers.

2. A person who is not a member of the State Legislature cannot be

appointed as a minister.

3. The State Council of Ministers can function for sometime even

after death or resignation of the Chief Minister.

4. In the absence of the Chief Minister, only the Home Minister can

preside over emergency meetings of the State Council of

Ministers.

Which of these is / are correct ?

(a) Only 1

(b) 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

32. The salaries and allowances of the Council of Ministers of the

State Government are paid from the :

(a) Reserve Bank of India

(b) Treasury of the State Government

(d) Consolidated Fund of the State

33. The ministers in the Council of Ministers at the state level are

appointed by :

(a) President of the party

(b) Governor

(d) Prime Minister

34. Which/Who of the following can appoint a commission to

examine and report on any matter relating to the administration

of the autonomous districts or regions?

(a) Legislative Assembly of the State

(b) Governor of the State

(d) Parliament of India

35. The Governor may recommend the imposition of the President’s

rule in the state

(a) on the recommendation of the State Legislature

(b) on the recommendation of the President

(d) if he is convinced thai the Government of the State cannot be

carried on in accordance with the provisions of the

Constitution of India

36. The Governor of a State can act independent of the advice of

the Council of Ministers in

1. asking the government to prove its majority in the Assembly.

2. dismissing a Chief Minister

3. reserving a bill for the consideration of the President of India.

4. returning the bill passed by the legislature for reconsideration

5. seeking the opinion of the High Court.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(d) All the above

37. Which among the following States did record the formation of

maximum Coalitation Governments in between 1967 to

1971?

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Haryana

(d) Punjab

38. Who was the Speaker of the First Elected Legislative Assembly

of Uttarakhand?

(a) Prakash Pant

(b) Harbansh Kapur

(d) Yashpal Arya

39. On the basis of formation, Uttarakhand is the –

(a) 27th State of Indian Union

(b) 26th State of Indian Union

(d) 29th State of Indian Union

40. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be

removed by only the President of India?

(a) Chief Minister of a state

(b) A member of the State Public Service Commission

(d) Vice - Chancellor of a State University

41. The Governor of the state has the power to reserve a Bill for the

consideration of the President. At least in one case the

reservation of the Bill is compulsory. The case is –

(a) Where the law in question would derogate from the powers of

the High Court under the Constitution

(b) The bill is related to enhancing quota of reservation for a

particular class of the society

(d) The Bill starting any special type of population census in the

State.

State Judiciary

42. Consider the following statements :

1. An administrator of a union territory is an agent of the President

of India and not head of state like a Governor.

2. The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists

(including the state list) for the Union territories.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

43. Which of the following is correct regarding the union territories ?

1. Articles 239 to 241 contain provisions regarding the union

territories.

2. Part VIII of the Constitution deal with the union territories.

3. Part VII of the Constitution deal with the union territories.

4. Articles 238 to 242 contain provisions regarding the union

territories.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 4

Local government – q

Panchayati Raj

1. A committee appointed in 1977 to review working of the

Panchayti Raj was chaired by

(a) Balwant Rai Mehta

(b) Ashok Mehta

(d) Jagjivan Ram

2. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the

institution of Panchayti Raj?

(a) Article 36

(b) Article 39

(d) Article 48

3. Which one of the following is not a Panchayati Raj institution?

(a) Gram Sabha

(b) Gram Panchayat

(d) Gram Co-operative Society

4. When was the Panchayati Raj System introduced in India?

(a) 1945

(b) 1950

(d) 1962

5. Which of the following is a source of income of the Gram

Panchayats?

(a) Income Tax

(b) Sales Tax

(d) Duties

6. The Constitution of India mandates that the elections of the

Panchayati Raj should be held regularly after a gap of:

(a) 2 years

(b) 3 years

(d) 5 years

7. The 73rd Amendment of the Indian Constitution deals with

(a) Panchayati Raj

(b) Compulsory primary education

(d) Minimum age of marriage

8. Which one of the following states started the Panchayati Raj

institution soon after the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act was

passed?

(a) Karnataka

(b) Bihar

9. The Ashok Mehta Committee laid greater emphasis on

(a) Gram Sabha

(b) Mandal Sabha

(d) Zila Parishad

10. Panchayati Raj in India represents:

(a) Decentralization of powers

(b) Participation of the people

(d) All of these

11. Panchayati Raj in India is laid down under:

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Directive Principle of State Policy

(d) Election Commission Act Policy

12. Three-tier system of Panchayati Raj consists of

(a) Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Block Samiti

(b) Gram Panchayat, Block Samiti, Zila Parishad

(d) Gram Panchayat, Zila Parishad, Block Samiti

13. Who was the president of the committee on whose

recommendation was the Panchayati Raj established in India?

(a) Balwant Rai Mehta

(b) Ashok Mehta

(d) Jeevraj Mehta

14. The Panchayati Raj system was first started in India in the

states of Rajasthan and...

(a) andhra Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Haryana

15. The decision to conduct Panchayat Elections is taken by which

of the following?

(a) The Central Government

(b) The State Government

(d) The Election Commission

16. A Panchayat Samiti at the block level is

(a) An advisory body

(b) An administrative authority

(d) A supervisory authority

17. The main purpose of Panchayati Raj is

(a) To create employment

(b) To increase agricultural production

(d) To make people participate in development administration

18. Nyaya Panchayats in Panchayti Raj system have no powers of

awarding imprisonment except in the state of

(a) West Bengal

(b) Jammu and Kashmir

(d) Bihar

19. Which of the following Indian states has no Panchayati Raj

institution?

(a) Assam

(b) Tripura

(d) Nagaland

20. Functions to be assigned to panchayats by 73rd amendment of

the Constitution are mentioned in

(a) Tenth schedule

(b) Eleventh schedule

(d) Thirteenth schedule

21. Provision regarding panchayats and municipalities was made in

the Indian Constitution in which year?

(a) 1991

(b) 1992

(d) 2000

22. When and where Panchayati Raj system in India was

introduced?

(a) July5, 1957; Firozabad (U.P)

(b) October 2, 1959; Nagor (Rajasthan)

(d) December 3, 1960; Bhopal (M.P)

23. Which committee had first of all recommended three-tier

Panchayati Raj in India in 1957?

(a) Balwant Rai Committee

(b) Ashok Mehta Committee

(d) Hanumantayaa Committee

24. The constitutional status has been given to Panchayats under

Article.

(a) 219

(b) 226

(d) 243

25. Panchayati Raj is organised at the

(a) block level

(b) village, block, district and state level

(d) village and block level

26. The Panchayati Raj institution at the block level is known as:

(a) Gram Panchayat

(b) Panchayat Samiti

(d) None of these

27. What is the middle unit in the three tier Panchayati Raj System?

(a) Gram Panchayat

(b) Panchayat Samiti

(d) Union Board

28. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:

(a) One month

(b) Three months

(d) One year

29. The Panchayati Raj is included in the

(a) Union list

(b) State list

(d) Residuary list

30. Which one of the following Articles provides for the reservation

of seats for the scheduled caste and scheduled tribes in the

Panchayat?

(a) Article 243(a)

(b) Article 243(b)

(d) Article 243(d)

31. Panchayati Raj is based on the principles of

(a) decentralisation

(b) deconcentration

(d) democratic decentralisation

32. Which of the following committees is not concerned with

Panchayati Raj?

(a) Santhanam Committee

(b) Ashok Mehta Committee

(d) V.K.R.V. Rao Committee

33. Which one of the following models was suggested by the Ashok

Mehta Committee for the Panchayati Raj in India?

(a) Three-tier model

(b) Mandal Panchayat model

(d) Gram Panchayat model

34. Which one of the following Directive principles is nearer to

Gandhi’s philosophy?

(a) Equal pay for equal work

(b) Separation of executive from judiciary

(d) Equal justice and free legal aid

35. Which of the following committees recommended that the

elections to Panchayati Raj bodies should be held on party

lines?

(a) Balwant Rai Mehta committee

(b) Ashok committee

(d) VKRV Rao committee

36. Elections in the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India are

conducted by

(a) State Election Commissioner

(b) Election Commission of India

(d) Central Government

37. Which one of the following is not the concern of local

government?

(a) Public health

(b) Sanitation

(d) Maintenance of public order

38. In which year, the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1972)

was assented by the President?

(a) 1990

(b) 1991

(d) 1994

39. In which year, Ashok Mehta Committee was appointed to review

the working of Panchayati Raj institution?

(a) 1977

(b) 1978

(d) 1980

40. Which article of the Constitution lays down that state shall take

steps to organise village Panchayats?

(a) Article 36

(b) Article 73

(d) Article 40

41. After elections, vote of no-confidence against the sarpanch can

be proposed only after

(a) 3 months

(b) 6 months

(d) 2 years

42. Which of the following articles in the shape of the directive

principles mentions the organisation of the village panchayats?

(a) Article 40

(b) Article 43

(d) Article 47

43. A 2-tier system is prescribed by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992

for states with population less than

(a) 10 lakhs

(b) 5 lakhs

(d) none of these

44. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local

Government in India?

(a) According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an

independent tier in the federal system.

(b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women

(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission

45. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are

several fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which one of

the following is not one such provisions?

(a) A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture rural

development, primary education and social forestry among

other

(b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are

due

third of the strength

(d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to

ensure their punctuality and accountability

46. Swaraj Trophy is associated with which of the following

(a) Best district

(b) Best Zila Parishad

(d) Best Panchayat

47. Which is the first state in South India to introduce Panchayati

Raj?

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Kerala

(d) Karnatka

48. Under which Prime Minister were the 73rd and 74th amendment

implemented?

(a) Narasimha Rao

(b) Indira Gandhi

(d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

49. Which of the following articles states that State shall take

necessary steps to organize village panchayat?

(a) Article 40

(b) Article 30

(d) Article 101

50. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India makes

a specific mention of village panchayats?

(a) Article 19

(b) Article 21

(d) Article 246

51. Point out the difference between the local government in India

before and after the Constitutional Amendments in 1992:

1. It has become mandatory to hold regular elections to the local

government bodies.

2. 1/3rd positions are reserved for women.

3. Elected officials exercise supreme power in the government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

52. ‘Local government’ as a subject, is mentioned in which of the

following parts of the Constitution of India?

(a) State list under the 7th schedule

(b) Concurrent list under the 7th schedule

(d) 12th schedule

53. Which of the following provisions about the Panchayati Raj in

the Constitution of India is/are correct?

1. All the members of Panchayats at the village, intermediate and

district levels are elected directly by the voters.

2. The Chairperson of Panchayats at the village, intermediate and

district levels is elected directly by the voters.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

54. Consider the following statements:

1. The goal of empowering Gram Sabha as the voice of

Panchayats through Article 243A of the constitution was to

provide a democratic basis to decentralized decision

making.

2. The Ministry of Environment and Forests, has recently modified

a circular it issued in 2009 and allowed building activities in

forests areas without the need for Gram Sabha consent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

55. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of local

government in India?

(a) According to the Indian constitution, local government is not an

independent tier in the federal system.

(b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women.

(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a commission.

56. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set up?

(a) Single tier structure of local self govt. at the village level

(b) Two tier system of local self govt. at the village and block levels.

district levels.

(d) Four tier system of local self govt. at the village, block, district

and state levels.

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