Polity- MCQ
Indian Constituent assembly:
1. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Constituent assembly:
1. It held its first sitting just after
independence.
2. Its members were elected by indirect
election by the members of the Provisional
Legislative Assemblies
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
2. Which of the following provisions in Indian constitution are directly borrowed from constitutions of different countries?
1. Federal Scheme and Office of governor
2. Parliamentary government and
legislative procedure
3. Impeachment of the president and
removal of Supreme Court Judges
4. Emergency provisions
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 and 2only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 4 only
d. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Consider the given statement:
“Constituent Assembly declares its firm and solemn resolve to proclaim India as an Independent Sovereign Republic and to draw up for her future governance a Constitution”.
The above statement belongs to:
a. Cabinet Mission plan
b. Objective Resolution
c. Indian Independence Act of 1947
d. None of the above
4. Which of the following changes were made by Indian Independence Act of 1947 in the Constituent Assembly?
1. It empowered the Assembly to abrogate or alter any law made by the British Parliament in relation to India.
2. It also made Assembly a legislative body to enact ordinary laws for the country.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
5. The Constitution of India is the lengthiest of all the written Constitutions of the world. In
this regard, consider the following features of a written constitution:
1. It is framed by a representative body duly elected by the people and promulgated on a definite date.
2. It is found in one or more than one legal
document duly enacted in the form of laws.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. (d)none of the above
6. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding Constitution of India?
1. It determines the relationship among people living in our country.
2. It forms the framework, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions.
3. It expresses the aspirations of the people creating a good society.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
7. Consider the following pairs:
Constituent Assembly Chairman
Committee
1. Drafting Committee Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar
2. Provincial Sardar Patel
Constitution
Committee
3. Steering Committee Jawahar Lal
Nehru
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
matched?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
8. Which of the following statements related to the Preamble is/are correct?
1. The Preamble can neither provide
substantive power to the three organs of the State, nor limit their powers under the provisions of the Constitution.
2. The Preamble is a part of the Constitution
and, therefore, is amendable under all circumstances.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
9. Consider the following statements withreference to the ‘Constituent Assembly:
1. The members of the Constituent
Assembly were indirectly elected as well as nominated.
2. The election of the members of the Constituent Assembly from Princely
States was direct.
3. With Independence of India, the
Constituent Assembly became a fully
sovereign body.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
10. Consider the following statements regarding
Constituent Assembly:
1. The British Government accepted the demand for two Constituent Assembly in ‘August Offer’ 1940.
2. The Constituent Assembly was
constituted under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
11.Consider the following statements regarding
the feature of Indian Constitution:
1. It contains the fundamental principles of governance as well as detailed
administrative provision.
2. India has a single Constitution for both
the Centre and the states like USA.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
12. Which of the following statements is/are correct
regarding Parliamentary Form of Government
adopted by India?
1. This System is based on the doctrine of separation of powers between the legislative and executive organs.
2. There is a presence of nominal head and real executive head.
3. It is established at centre as well as at state in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
13. Which one of the following is not considered as the feature of Indian constitution?
a. Flexibility in amending the basic federal provisions of the constitution.
b. Single citizenship with some exceptions.
c. Federal system with unitary bias.
d. Parliamentary form of government.
14. Consider the following statements with respect
to evolution of constitution:
1. The idea of the constituent assembly for India was put forward for the first time by Motilal Nehru.
2. The constituent assembly was constituted
in November 1946 formulated by Cabinet
Mission Plan.
3. Dr. Sachchidanada Sinha was elected as the permanent president of the constituent assembly.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. None of the above
15. Consider the following statements with
respect to the American Presidential form of
Government:
1. The president can dissolve the House of
Representatives.
2. The president and his secretaries are responsible to the congress for their act.
3. The president is both head of the state and head of the government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 3 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
16. Which of the following statements is/are correct
related to the concept of justice provided in the
Constitution?
1. Political justice has been ensured by provision of adult suffrage.
2. Social justice has been guaranteed under Article 15 and 17.
3. Economic justice has been ensured by the
various provisions of DPSP.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
17. Which one of the following statement is incorrect related to the Indian Constitutional
Provisions?
a. The Fundamental Rights are meant
for promoting the ideal of political
democracy.
b. Judiciary can give liberal interpretation
to any of the Fundamental Rights without
changing its basic structure.
c. ‘Equal protection of law’ provision is
taken from British constitution.
d. Article 17 is an absolute right.
18. Which of the following are not the part of the
Special provisions provided for Delhi?
1. The strength of the Council of Ministers
has been fixed at 15 per cent of the total
strength of the assembly.
2. The Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor and the other ministers are
appointed by the Governor on the advice
of the Chief Minister.
3. In case of failure of Constitutional
machinery, the President can impose his rule in the territory and it can be done
only after the report of Lt. Governor.
4. Lt. Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinance only when assembly is dissolved
or suspended.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 1, 3 and 4 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
19. Which of the following are the features of the
Federal structure?
1. Bicameralism.
2. Written Constitution.
3. Supremacy of the Constitution.
4. Single Citizenship.
5. Integrated Judiciary.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 2, 3, and 4 only
b. 1, 2, and 5 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 3 and 4 only
20. Which of the following features is/are correct
with respect to India?
1. Union of States
2. Quasi-judicial state
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
21. Parliamentary System of India is inspired
from British Parliamentary System, but it is different in the sense that:
1. India has a republican system in place of British monarchical system.
2. Indian system is not based on the doctrine
of the sovereignty of Parliament.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
22. Which of the following are the unitary features
of the Indian Constitution?
1. Written Constitution
2. Flexibility of the Constitution
3. Single Citizenship
4. All India Services
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
23.Which among the following statements about a Constitution is incorrect?
a. A Constitution is a body of fundamental principles according to which a State is constituted or governed.
b. The Japanese Constitution of 1947 is popularly known as the ‘peace constitution.’
c. An essential function of a Constitution is to specify who has the power to make
decisions in a society.
d. In democratic constitutions, one single party is given the power to decide.
24 Consider the following pairs:
Features Borrowed Sources
1. Independent Judiciary : US Constitution
2. Law Making Procedure : Australian Constitution
3. Institution of the Speaker : British Constitution
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 1 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
25. Consider the following statements:
(1) The Indian Constitution makes ethnic identity a criterion for citizenship.
(2) The United Kingdom has a written constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
26 Regarding the Constituent Assembly of India, consider the following statements:
(1) It was constituted under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.
(2) The Constituent Assembly passed all the provisions of the Constitution only after
debating every provision.
(3) All members were elected directly by the members of the Provincial Legislative
Assemblies.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
27 Consider the following provisions borrowed from the Constitutions of different countries:
(1) First Past the Post
(2) Parliamentary Form of Government
(3) The idea of the rule of law
(4) A quasi-federal form of government (a federal system with a strong central government)
(5) The idea of Residual Powers
Which of the above provisions are not borrowed from the Canadian Constitution?
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 4 and 5 only
28 Which among the following statements about the composition of the Constituent
Assembly of India is correct?
a. Two hundred ninety-nine members of the Constituent Assembly were present on
26 November 1949 and appended their signature to the Constitution as finally passed.
b. In the Indian Constitution, religious identity has an essential bearing on
citizenship rights.
c. The Assembly had twenty-six members from what was then known as the
Scheduled Classes.
d. In terms of political parties, the Congress dominated the Assembly occupying as
many as fifty per cent of the seats in the Assembly after the Partition.
29. Consider the following statements:
(1) Special Majority and people’s participation are two principles that dominate the
various procedures of amending the Constitutions in most modern countries.
(2) The Constitutions of the U.S., South Africa, Russia, have employed people’s
participation in the process of amending the Constitution principle.
(3) In Switzerland, people can even initiate an amendment to the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 only
d. 2 and 3 only
30. Which of the following was part of the historic Objectives Resolution?
(1) All people of India shall be guaranteed and secured social, economic and political
justice.
(2) India is an Independent, Secular and Republic country.
(3) All powers and authority of independent India and its Constitution shall flow from the
people.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
31. The provisions of equality of status and equality of opportunity have been provided in
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. The Preamble
D. Directive Principles of State Policy and the Preamble
32.Consider the following statements concerning liberalism in India:
(1) The liberalism of the Indian Constitution was always linked to social justice; the best
example of this is the provision for reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes in the Constitution.
(2) Rammohan Roy emphasised individual rights, particularly the rights of women, which
is one of the streams of Indian liberalism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
33. Consider the following statements:
(1) Freedom of Religion includes the freedom not to follow any religion.
(2) The government cannot impose any restrictions on the practice of Freedom of
Religion.
(3) The government can discriminate based on religion in providing public employment.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
34.In so far as the Constitution of India is concerned, minority status is recognised on which
of the following grounds?
(1) Religion
(2) Language
(3) Culture
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
35. |Which of the following provisions under the Constitution of India has been recognised as
“Heart and Soul of the Constitution”?
a.. Right to Life and Right to Constitutional Remedy
b.. Right to Constitutional Remedy
c.. Directive Principles of State Policy
d. Preamble and the Fundamental Duties
36. With reference to the Constituent Assembly, consider the following statements:
(1) The Constituent Assembly first met in December 1946 as per the provisions of the
Cabinet Mission Plan.
(2) Each Province and Princely state was to be allotted seats in proportion to its
respective population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
37. With reference to the National Anthem of India, consider the following statements:
(1) It was first sung in December 1911 at the Calcutta session of the Indian National
Congress.
(2) The Constituent Assembly adopted it on 24th January 1950.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
38.Which of the following were the features of the Indian Independence Act of 1947?
(1) It provided for the partition of India and creation of two independent dominions – of
India and Pakistan.
(2) It transferred the functions of the Secretary of State for India to the Secretary of
State for Commonwealth Affairs.
(3) The British Monarch had the right of veto over bills and could ask for a reservation
of specific bills for his/her approval until new dominions adopted their respective
constitutions.
(4) Appointment to the civil services was continued.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
39. Which of the following functions were performed by the Constituent Assembly of
India?
(1) It ratified India’s membership to the Commonwealth in 1949.
(2) Enactment of Ordinary Laws.
(3) It adopted the National Flag, the National Anthem, the National Song and also
elected the first President of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
40. With reference to the Constituent Assembly of India, consider the following
statements:
(1) Representatives of Princely states were elected directly by the people.
(2) The Constituent Assembly could alter or abrogate any law made by the British
Parliament for India.
(3) The representatives of each community were elected by proportional
representation through the means of a single transferable vote.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
41. Which of the following is/are the unitary feature(s) of the Indian Constitution?
(1) All-India Services
(2) Written Constitution
(3) Integrated Judiciary
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
42. With reference to the Constituent Assembly of India, consider the following statements:
(1) Dr Rajendra Prasad chaired the Constituent Assembly when it met as a legislative
body.
(2) The people of India directly elected it based on adult franchise.
(3) Women were not represented in the Constituent Assembly.
(4) Sir B. N. Rau was appointed as the Constitutional advisor to the Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
a. 1 and 4 only
b. 4 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. None of the above
43. The Preamble is considered as the soul of the Indian Constitution. In the light of this,
consider the following statements:
(1) The Preamble is embodied with the values that inspired and guided the freedom
struggle.
(2) The Preamble guides all parts of the Indian Constitution except Fundamental
Duties.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only.
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
44. Which of the following provisions form a part of ‘basic structure of the Constitution’?
(1) Rule of law
(2) The mandate to build a welfare state
(3) Secular character of the Constitution
(4) Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a. 1 and 4 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
45. Which of the following is/are unitary features of the Constitution?
1. Strong centre
2. States not indestructible
3. No equality of state representation
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
46. Consider the following statements
1. The Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India.
2. The laws made by a state legislature are not applicable outside the state in normal circumstance.
3. The Prime Minister is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled
area in the state or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 only
d. 2 only
47. Consider the following statements regarding the composition of the Constituent Assembly:
1. The representatives were to be elected from the four constituents–Hindu, Muslim, Sikh and
Christian.
2. The chairman of the Union Constitution Committee was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
3. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was 389.
4. The Drafting Committee under the chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar consisted of eight
members.
Which of these is/are correct?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 3 only
d. 1 only
47. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India was/were given immediate effect
from November 26, 1949?
1. Citizenship
2. Emergency provisions
3. Elections
4. Federal system
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. Only 1
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 1 and 3
48. What was the procedure followed for adoption of the Constitution of India?
a. It was submitted to the people of India for ratification.
b. It was submitted to the Governor-General for his assent.
c. It was adopted when the interim government approved it.
d. It was adopted when it received the signature of the President and Members of the Constituent
Assembly.
50. Who among the following was the Chairman of the States Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
a. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
b. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d. Sardar Patel
51. The Constitution of India as framed by the Constituent Assembly was finally adopted and enacted
on:
a. 15th August, 1947
b. 30th January, 1948
c. 26th November, 1949
d. 26th January, 1950
52. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Constituent Assembly Committee) (Chairman)
A. Steering Committee 1. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
B. Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee 2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. Union Constitution Committee 3. J.B. Kripalani
D. Provincial Constitution Committee 4. Jawaharlal Nehru
Codes:
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 2 4 3 1
d. 1 3 4 2
53. The members of the Constituent Assembly were:
a. Directly elected by the people.
b. Nominated by the Governor General
c. Elected by the Legislatures of various provinces and nominated by the rulers of the princely
states.
d. Nominated by the Congress and the .Muslim League.
54. Who among the following was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?
a. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
b. K.M. Munshi
c. Sir B.N. Rau
d. T.T. Krishnamachari
55. Assertion (A): The Constituent Assembly of 1946 was not elected on the basis of universal adult
franchise.
Reason (R): The Constituent Assembly was constituted under the scheme formulated by the
Cabinet Mission Plan.
Codes:
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
56. Who among the following moved the “Objectives Resolution” in the Constituent Assembly?
a. B.N. Rao
b. B.R. Ambedkar
c. Jawaharlal Nehru
d. Rajendra Prasad
57. Consider the following statements:
1. Dr. Sachchid anand Sinha was elected as the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly.
2. H.C. Mukherjee was elected as the Vice-President of the Constituent Assembly.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
58. Which of the following statements about the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. Popular sovereignty and adult franchise are the basic features of the Constitution.
2. The Constitution, in so far as the division of powers between the Centre and the States is
concerned, is rigid.
3. The Constitution recognises the interdependence of civil and economic rights.
4. The Constitution mentions direct control by the people such as referendum, initiative and
recall.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a. Only 1
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
59. Consider the following statements related to secularism in India:
1. It entails strict separation of religion from politics.
2. It bans parties with religious affiliations from contesting elections.
3. It grants religious liberty to all communities.
4. It accepts community personal laws.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 3 and 4
b. 1 and 2
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
60. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India incorporates salaries and allowances
of members of Parliament, the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha,
and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, as one of the items ?
a. Fifth Schedule
b. Seventh Schedule
c. Ninth Schedule
d. Tenth Schedule
61. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Subject) (Part of the Constitution of India)
A. Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits 1. Part V
B. The Union Judiciary 2. Part XII
C. The Executive of States 3. Part XI
D. Relations between the Union and the States 4. Part VI
Codes:
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 2 3 4 1
62. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of the Constitution of India?
a. Written Constitution and supremacy of the Constitution
b. Quasi-federal structure
c. Committed Judiciary
d. Distribution of Powers
63. Consider the following statements:
The Indian Constitution is:
1. an unwritten constitution.
2. a written constitution.
3. largely based on the Government of India Act, 1935.
4. a gift of British Parliament.
Of these statements:
a. 2 and 4 are correct
b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 1 and 4 are correct
d. 1 and 3 are correct
64. The Second Schedule of the Constitution of India does not contain the provisions as to who
among the following?
a. The President
b. The Speaker of the House of People
c. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
d. The Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
65. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Provisions in the Constitution of India) (Source)
A. Emergency Provisions 1. Ireland
B. Fundamental Rights 2. The United Kingdom
C. Parliamentary System 3. The United States of America
D. Directive Principles of State Policy 4. Germany
Codes:
A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 2 1 4 3
66. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a. Languages : Eighth Schedule
b. The forms of oaths or affirmations : Second Schedule
c. Allocation of seats in the Council of States : Fourth Schedule
d. Provisions as to disqualification on the ground : Tenth Schedule
of defection
67 Consider the following statements with reference to Secularism in India:
1. Secularism means that the State has no recognised religion of State.
2. Secularism means that the State treats all the religions equally.
3. Secularism means that the State regulates the relation of man with God.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
68. Assertion (A): Not contented with merely laying down the fundamental principles of governance,
the framers of the Indian Constitution followed the Government of India Act,
1919 in providing matters of administrative details.
Reason (R): The framers of the Indian Constitution had the apprehension that in the prevailing
conditions of the country at that time, the Constitution might be subverted unless
the form of administration was also included.
Codes:
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
69. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution
of India?
a. It contains the languages recognised in the Constitution.
b. It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas.
c. It lists distribution of powers between the Union and the States.
d. It deals with the salaries and emoluments of the constitutional functionaries.
70. Consider the following statements:
The salient features of the Indian Constitution provide for:
1. Single citizenship for the whole of India.
2. Strictly federal form of government.
3. Unique blend of rigidity and flexibility.
Of the above statements:
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct
d. 1 and 3 are correct
71. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Schedule of the Constitution of India) (Content)
A. Ninth Schedule 1. Provisions regarding Panchayati Raj Institutions
B. Tenth Schedule 2. Provisions regarding land reforms legislations
C. Eleventh Schedule 3. Provisions regarding administration of tribal areas
D. Sixth Schedule 4. Provisions regarding the distribution of powers
between the Centre and States
72. Which of the following are considered as parts of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution?
1. Republication and democratic form of Government
2. Secular character of the Constitution
3. Division between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Federal character of the Constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
73. Statement I: The power of Amendment under Article 368 does not include the power to alter
the basic structure of the Constitution.
Statement II: The Right to Equality does not form a part of the basic structure of the
Constitution.
Codes:
a. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I.
b.Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I.
c. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
74. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
The power of Parliament to amend the Constitution of India as a constitutional power was laid
down under Article 368 by:
a. The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951
b. The Constitution (Twenty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1971
c. The Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971
d. The Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976
75. In which case did the Supreme Court pronounce the judgement for the first time that the ‘basic
structure’ of the Constitution cannot be amended by Parliament ?
a. Shankari Prasad case
b. Golaknath case
c. Kesavananda Bharati case
d. Minerva Mills case
76. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
a. The Constitution clearly lays down what its basic structure is
b. The Supreme Court has elaborately defined the basic structure of the Constitution
c. The Law Commission of India with the help of Attorney-General of India has defined the
basic structure of the Constitution
d. Neither the Supreme Court nor the Parliament have defined the basic structure of the
Constitution
77. Which one of the following Amendments inserted provision saying that “Nothing in Article 13
shall apply to any amendments made under Article 368” ?
a. Forty-second Amendment Act
b. Forty-fourth Amendment Act
c. Twenty-fourth Amendment Act
d. Twenty-second Amendment Act
78. Under Article 368, the Parliament has no power to repeal Fundamental Rights because these are:
a. Enshrined in Part III of the Constitution
b. Human Rights
c. Transcendental Rights
d. Part of basic structure of the Constitution
79. Which one of the following cases prompted the Parliament to enact 24th Constitutional Amendment
Act ?
a. Golaknath case
b. Shankari Prasad case
c. Kesavananda Bharati case
d. Minerva Mills case
80. Statement I: By amendment, Parliament cannot destroy the basic features of the Constitution.
Statement II: The power to amend does not include the power to abrogate the Constitution.
Codes:
a. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I.
b. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I.
c. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
d. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
81. The Supreme Court invalidated a provision of the Forty-Second Amendment Act, which enlarged
the scope of Article 368 to amend Fundamental Rights on the ground that the:
a. Requisite number of States had not ratified the amendment
b. Amendment has been enacted during the emergency
c. Amendment abrogated a basic feature of the Constitution
d. Rajya Sabha had not passed the amendment with the prescribed majority
82. Who was the chairman of the drafting committee of the
Constituent Assembly?
a. J.L. Nehru
b. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
c. B.R. Ambedkar
d. K.M.Munshi
83. How many members of the constituent assembly signed the
Constitution of India?
a. 284
b. 294
c. 274
84. The permanent president of Constituent Assembly was
a. Dr. Ambedkar
b. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c. K.M. munshi
d. J.L. Nehru
85. Who among the following was a non-congress member of the
Constituent Assembly?
a. J.B. Kripalani
b. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
c. K.M. Munshi
d. T.T. Krishnamachari
86. How many members were assigned by Cabinet Mission in
Constituent Assembly?
a. 300
b. 309
c. 450
d. 296
87. What was the duration in the making of Indian Constitution?
a. 1 Year 10 Months and 12 Days
b. 2 Years 10 Months and 5 Days
c. 2 Years 11 Months and 18 Days
d. 3 Years 6 Months and 7 Days
88. Which of the following gave the idea of Constituent Assembly for
India?
a. Simon Commission
b. Rajaji Formula
c. Cabinet Mission Plan
d. Wavell Plan
89. The Constitution of India was enacted on 26 November 1949 by
the
a. Constituent Assembly
b. Parliament of India
c. President of India
d. British Parliament
90. When did the Indian Constituent Assembly meet for the first
time?
a. 26 Jan, 1950
b. 15Aug, 1947
c. 9 Dec, 1946
d. 19 Nov, 1949
91. The Constitution of India was completed by which of the
following dates :
a. Jan 26, 1950
b. Nov 26, 1949
c. Feb 11, 1948
d. None of above
92. The proposal for framing of the Constitution of India by an
elected Constituent Assembly was made by
a. Simon Commissions
b. Government of India Act, 1935
c. Cripps Mission
d. British cabinet Delegation
93. Who of the following has stated that ‘The Constitution has not
been set in a right mould of Federalism’?
a. D.D. Basu
b. K.M. Munshi
c. B.R. Ambedkar
d. A.K. Iyer
94 Who of the following moved the ‘Objective Resolution’ in the
Constituent Assembly?
a. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
b. P. J.L Nehru
c. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d. Dr. C.D. Deshmukh
95. The number of members included in the Constitution Drafting
Committee was:
a. Seven
b. Nine
c. Eleven
d. Thirteen
96. Draft of Indian Constitution was prepared by–
a. Sir B. N. Rao, “Advisor to the Constituent Assembly
b. Sir Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer Chairman Constitution Draft Committee
c. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Union Law Minister
d. Jawahar Lal Nehru, Prime Minister
97. Consider the following statements regarding the composition of
the Constituent Assembly:
1. The representatives were to be elected from the four constituents
– Hindu, Muslim, Sikh and Christian.
2. The chairman of the Union Constitution Committee was Sardar
Vallabhbhai Patel.
3. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was 389.
4. The Drafting Committee under the chairmanship of Dr. B. R.
Ambedkar consisted of eight members.
Which of these is/are correct?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 3 only
d. 1 only
98. Consider the following statements:
1. Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha was elected as the Provisional
President of the Constituent Assembly.
2. H.C. Mukherjee was elected as the Vice-President of the
Constituent Assembly.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
99. Consider the following statements about the judicial system
introduced by the British in India:
1. It judicially unified India.
2. The British established a new system of law through the process
of enactment and relevant interpretation of customary laws.
3. In general the British tended to avoid the customary laws of
India.
Which of the Statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
100. Which of the following statements about the formation of the
Constituent Assembly is / are correct?
1. The members of the Constituent Assembly were chosen on the
basis of the provincial elections of 1946.
2. The Constituent Assembly did not include representatives of the
Princely States.
3. The discussions within the Constituent Assembly were not
influenced by opinions expressed by the public.
4. In order to create a sense of collective participation, submissions
were solicited from the public.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
100. The Constituent Assembly of India convened to prepare the
Constitution of India appointed a sub-committee headed by
Gopinath Bordoloi.
Which of the following recommendations was/were made by the committee?
1. Fifth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Asom) Tribal and
Excluded Areas.
2. Constitution of District Councils in all autonomous districts of
Asom.
3. Sixth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Asom) Tribal and
Excluded Areas.
4. Demarcation of territories in North-East India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a. Only 1
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. Only 4
1. Source of authority of the Constitution
2. Nature of Indian State
3. Objectives of the Constitution
4. Date when Constitution came into effect
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution: c)
The Preamble reveals four ingredients or components:
1. Source of authority of the Constitution: The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the
people of India.
2. Nature of Indian State: It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic and republican polity.
3. Objectives of the Constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the objectives.
4. Date of adoption of the Constitution: It stipulates November 26, 1949 as the date.
2) Which of the following were the suggestions made by Swaran Singh Committee to be included as Fundamental
Duties?
1. Duty to pay taxes
2. Family Planning
3. Casting vote
Select the correct codes below
a) 1 only
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: a)
• Swaran Singh Committee suggested the incorporation of eight Fundamental Duties in the Constitution, the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) included ten Fundamental Duties
• Certain recommendations of the Committee were not accepted and hence, not incorporated in the Constitution.
These include:
1. Parliament may provide for the imposition of such penalty or punishment as may be
considered appropriate for any non-compliance with or refusal to observe any of the duties
2. No law imposing such penalty or punishment shall be called in question in any court on the ground of
infringement of any of Fundamental Rights or on the ground of repugnancy to any other provision of the
Constitution
3. Duty to pay taxes should also be a Fundamental Duty of the citizens
3) Consider the following statements regarding appointment of judges to the Supreme Court.
1. The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the Collegium.
2. A distinguished jurist is eligible to become a judge of the Supreme Court with final approval of the
President.
3. To become a judge of the Supreme court, the person should not exceed 65 years of age.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: c)
Who appoints judges to the SC?
In exercise of the powers conferred by clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution of India, the appointments are
made by the President of India.
The names are recommended by the Collegium.
Eligibility to become a Supreme Court judge:
1. The norms relating to the eligibility has been envisaged in the Article 124 of the Indian Constitution.
2. To become a judge of the Supreme court, an individual should be an Indian citizen.
3. In terms of age, a person should not exceed 65 years of age.
4. The person should serve as a judge of one high court or more (continuously), for at least five years or the
person should be an advocate in the High court for at least 10 years or a distinguished jurist.
Is the collegium’s recommendation final and binding?
The collegium sends its final recommendation to the President of India for approval. The President can either accept
it or reject it. In the case it is rejected, the recommendation comes back to the collegium. If the collegium reiterates
its recommendation to the President, then he/she is bound by that recommendation.
4) With reference to the power of judicial review of high courts, consider the following statements
1. High court can review the laws enacted by state legislatures only and not the ones enacted by the
Parliament.
2. High court cannot interpret the Constitution while reviewing any law or order passed by the government,
as Supreme Court is the sole interpreter of Constitution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None
Solution: d)
Both the statements are incorrect. High court can review the laws enacted by Parliament. High court can interpret
the Constitution while reviewing any law or order passed by the government.
5) Consider the following statements regarding legislative council of a state.
1. Parliament may by law create or abolish the legislative council in a state if the Legislative Assembly of that
state passes a resolution to that effect by a simple majority.
2. As per the Indian Constitution, the total number of members in the legislative council of a state shall not
exceed one sixth of the total number of the members in the legislative Assembly of that state.
3. Members of municipalities do not take part in electing the members of legislative council.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: d)
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